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aleksandrvk [35]
3 years ago
11

Superior has provided the following information for its recent year of operation: The common stock account balance at the beginn

ing of the year was $10,000 and the year-end balance was $15,000. The additional paid-in capital account balance increased $2,600 during the year. The retained earnings balance at the beginning of the year was $65,000 and the year-end balance was $80,000. Net income was $27,000. How much were Superior's dividend declarations during its recent year of operation?
Business
1 answer:
MrMuchimi3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The $12,000 dividend declaration is made during its recent year of operation

Explanation:

In this question, we have to apply the formula which is shown below:

The ending balance of retained earning = Beginning balance of retained earnings + net income - dividend paid

$80,000 = $65,000 + $27,000 - dividend paid

$80,000 = $92,000 - dividend paid

So, the dividend paid equals to

= $92,000 - $80,000

= $12,000

These items would be displayed in the retained earnings statement

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"When aggregate demand​ increases," A. the price level is likely to fall as GDP rises. B. aggregate supply will shift to the rig
stira [4]

Answer:

D. the price level is likely to rise as GDP rises.

Explanation:

The aggregate demand measures all the goods produced in an economy at a given price in a particular period.

When the aggregate demand increases, the aggregate demand curve shifts to the right. When aggregate demand increases, aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply and aggregate price and output would increase.

7 0
3 years ago
The Company uses lower-of-cost-or-market approach. The replacement cost of an inventory item is $75. Net realizable value is $82
egoroff_w [7]

Answer:

The inventory would be valued at $75 each

Explanation:

From  a market approach to valuation,we need to first of all compare the replacement cost and net realizable in order to pick the lower of both values,hence the replacement cost of $75 is lower than net realizable value of $82.50.

As a result, we can then compare the lower of replacement cost and initial cost,such that inventory can then be valued at the lower of both.

From the foregoing analysis,the replacement of $75 each per item is lower than the initial cost $76.50,invariably our inventory is valued at $75 each.

4 0
3 years ago
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What's the difference between a debit card and a cash card
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5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The price of diamonds is high, in part because the majority of the world’s diamonds are controlled by a single firm. This is an
kirill115 [55]

Answer:

Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

This is a case of monopoly market condition where there is a single firm operating the whole market. The price of the products is set by the single firm and the buyers in this market are price taker. The monopolist can earn normal profit, losses and abnormal profit in the short run and can earn normal profit and abnormal profit in the long run.

In our case, the price of diamonds is high because there is only single firm in the whole market and there is no other competitors in the market. That's why they are charging the higher prices.

5 0
3 years ago
A company is selling bonds with a face value of $1,000 to raise money for a plant expansion. The bonds pay a coupon rate of 4% p
Ksivusya [100]

Answer:

10.26%

Explanation:

According to the scenario, computation of the given data are as follow:-

Net sales = $760

Face value of bonds = $1,000

Coupon rate = 4% = $1,000 × 4 ÷ 100

= 40

N = Number of Years = 5 annually = semiannually = 5 × 2

= 10 years

We assume, interest rate = 10% = 0.10

P = Coupon Rate ÷ 2 × (PVIFA,Interest Rate ÷ 2%,No. of Years) + Future Value(PVIF,Interest Rate ÷ 2%, No. of Years)

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)N] ÷ Interest Rate + Future Value[1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate) × N]

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1-1 ÷ (1 + 0.10 ÷ 2)^10] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1 + 0.10 ÷ 2)^10]

=$20 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1.05)^10] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1.05)^10]

=$20 × [1 -1 ÷ 1.6288946] ÷ 0.05 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ 1.6288946]

= 420 × 7.72173 + $1,000 × 0.613913

= $154.4346 + $613.913

= $768.3476

= $768.35

But the given value is 760, so we assume interest rate = 11%

=$40 ÷ 2 × [1-1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)^N] ÷ Interest Rate + Future Value[1 ÷ (1 + Interest Rate)^N]

= $40 ÷ 2 × [1 - 1 ÷(1 + 0.11 ÷ 2)^10] ÷ 0.055 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1 + 0.11 ÷ 2)^10]

= $20 × [1 - 1 ÷ (1.055)^10] ÷ 0.055 + $1,000 × [1 ÷ (1.055)^10]

= $20 × [1 - 1 ÷ 1.70814446] ÷ 0.055 + $1000 × [1 ÷ 1.70814446]

= $20 × 7.5376255 + $1,000 × 0.5854306

= $150.75 + $585.43

= $736.18

At the Interest rate of 10% the price is more than $760 and at the Interest rate of 1% the price is less than $760. So the required rate lies in between 10% to 11%.

So required rate  

Yield To Maturity = Lower Interest Rate + (Difference Between Interest Rate) × Higher Price - Received Price ÷ Higher Price - Lower Price

= 1 0+( 11 - 10) × $768.35 - $760 ÷ $768.35 - $736.18

= 10 + 1 × $8.35 ÷ $32.17

= 10 + 0.26

= 10.26%

7 0
3 years ago
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