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Ede4ka [16]
4 years ago
11

When turning the Riemann sum into the definite integral, why is the definite integral integral from 1 to 2 (x+1)²dx and not inte

gral from 1 to 2 (x)²dx?

Mathematics
1 answer:
defon4 years ago
4 0

Step-by-step explanation:

You are correct, it should either be ∫₁² (x)² dx or ∫₀¹ (x+1)² dx.

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The red arrows show the translation of each point in the graph.

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