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andreev551 [17]
3 years ago
12

if a scale map is 1 cm: 15 Km. find the actual distance corresponding to the scale map. 13) 2.5 cm 14) 0.2 cm 15) 15 cm 16) 4.6

cm
Mathematics
2 answers:
natta225 [31]3 years ago
7 0
All you gotta do is multiply the cm by 15,
For 13) you'd do 2.5*15
14) 0.2*15 
15) 15*15
then for 16) 4.6*15
atroni [7]3 years ago
5 0

Let

x-------> distance in the map in cm

y-------> actual distance in Km

we know that

Scale\ Map=\frac{x}{y} \\ \\ Scale\ Map=\frac{1}{15}\frac{cm}{Km}

so

\frac{x}{y}=\frac{1}{15}

y=15x --------> equation 1

<u>Part 13)</u> find the actual distance corresponding to the scale map 2.5\ cm

In this problem we have

x=2.5\ cm

Substitute the value of x in the equation  1 to find the actual distance

y=15*2.5=37.5\ Km

therefore

<u>the answer part 13) is</u>

the actual distance is 37.5\ Km

<u>Part 14)</u> find the actual distance corresponding to the scale map 0.2\ cm

In this problem we have

x=0.2\ cm

Substitute the value of x in the equation  1 to find the actual distance

y=15*0.2=3\ Km

therefore

<u>the answer part 14) is</u>

the actual distance is 3\ Km

<u>Part 15)</u> find the actual distance corresponding to the scale map 15\ cm

In this problem we have

x=15\ cm

Substitute the value of x in the equation  1 to find the actual distance

y=15*15=225\ Km

therefore

<u>the answer part 15) is</u>

the actual distance is 225\ Km

<u>Part 16)</u> find the actual distance corresponding to the scale map 4.6\ cm

In this problem we have

x=4.6\ cm

Substitute the value of x in the equation  1 to find the actual distance

y=15*4.6=69\ Km

therefore

<u>the answer part 16</u>

the actual distance is 69\ Km

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the player wins is,

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The player is playing the video game with 4 different opponents.

It is provided that when the player is defeated by an opponent the game ends.

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The results from all the 4 opponents are independent, i.e. the result of a game played with one opponent is unaffected by the result of the game played with another opponent.

The probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is,

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Thus, the probability that the player defeats all four opponents in a game is 0.4096.

(b)

The probability that the player defeats at least two opponents in a game is,

P (Player defeats at least 2) = 1 - P (Player losses the 1st game) - P (Player losses the 2nd game) = 1-P(L)-P(WL)

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P(WWWW) = 0.4096.

Then the random variable X\sim Bin(n=3, p=0.4096)

The probability distribution of binomial is:

P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^{x} (1-p)^{n-x}

The probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is,

P (<em>X</em> ≥ 1) = 1 - P (<em>X</em> < 1)

             = 1 - P (<em>X</em> = 0)

             =1-[{3\choose 0}(0.4096)^{0} (1-0.4096)^{3-0}]\\=1-[1\times1\times (0.5904)^{3}\\=1-0.2058\\=0.7942

Thus, the probability that the player defeats all the 4 opponents at least once is 0.7942.

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