For an individual die roll, the probability of rolling 6 is \dfrac{1}{6}
6
1
.
Effectively, this problem is asking for P(\text{1st roll is 6}\cap\text{2nd roll is 6})P(1st roll is 6∩2nd roll is 6).
Using the rule of product, this is:
\dfrac{1}{6}\times\dfrac{1}{6}=\dfrac{1}{36}
6
1
×
6
1
=
36
1
.
Answer:
ok so u =?? 15 and 17= 2 but cant be cs they 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 not 15 or 17so 3
Step-by-step explanation:
Step-by-step explanation:
if you need any explanation you can ask
Answer:
760
Step-by-step explanation:
95 x 800 / 100 = 760
If he bought the bike for $400 and lost 35% of his profit, you would divide 35 by 100. Next, you would multiply that number (0.35) by 400. When you do that, you get an answer of $140. In conclusion, if he bought the bike for $400 and sold it at a loss of 35%, he would lose $140 from that $400.
Additionally, if you wanted to know what exactly he sold it for, you would simply subtract 140 from 400. Which would be $260.
So, he bought the bike for $400, but when he resold it, he lost $140 of that pay. Basically, he resold the bike for $260.
I hope this helps! :) Let me know if you need help with anything else!
