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Ksivusya [100]
3 years ago
13

You invested $1,500,000 with a market-neutral hedge fund manager. The fee structure is 2/20, and the fund has a high-water-mark

provision. Suppose the first year the fund manager loses 9 percent and the second year she gains 19 percent. Assume management fees are paid at the beginning of each year and performance fees are taken at the end of each year. What are the management and performance fees paid each year?
Year 1 Year 2
Management fees $ $
Performance fees $ $
Business
1 answer:
Kryger [21]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

I am sorry

Explanation:

I dont do business

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c. total revenue does not change.

Explanation:

A price elasticity of demand can be defined as a measure of the responsiveness of the quantity of a product demanded with respect to a change in price of the product, all things being equal.

Mathematically, the price elasticity of demand is given by the formula;

Price \; elasticity of demand = \frac {Percentage \; change \; in \; quantity \; demanded}{Percentage \; change \;  in \; price}

The demand for goods is said to be elastic, when the quantity of goods demanded by consumers with respect to change in price is very large. Thus, the more easily a consumer can switch to a substitute product in relation to change in price, the greater the elasticity of demand.

Generally, consumers would like to be buy a product as its price falls or become inexpensive.

For substitute products (goods), the price elasticity of demand is always positive because the demand of a product increases when the price of its close substitute (alternative) increases.

If the price elasticity of demand for a product equals 1, as its price rises the total revenue does not change because the demand is unit elastic.

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3 years ago
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Marat540 [252]
The answer is 350000
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LUCKY_DIMON [66]

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Smart display campaign

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3 years ago
A separation between ownership and management is most likely to occur in a:
Thepotemich [5.8K]
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hope this helps
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Learn more about Audit here:

brainly.com/question/26048609

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