Answer:
x=2 or x=−4
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's solve your equation step-by-step.
(x+6)(x−4)=−16
Step 1: Simplify both sides of the equation.
x2+2x−24=−16
Step 2: Subtract -16 from both sides.
x2+2x−24−(−16)=−16−(−16)
x2+2x−8=0
Step 3: Factor left side of equation.
(x−2)(x+4)=0
Step 4: Set factors equal to 0.
x−2=0 or x+4=0
x=2 or x=−4
Answer:
Though it may vary, it's going closer to 0.5 as long as we enlarge our sample.
Step-by-step explanation:
1) Since a coin has heads and tails, then a sample proportion of 40 we can simulate it using some applets.
2) Here are the most common outcomes, as long as we continue on flipping coins.
If we continue enlarging our sample (80, 120,160...) the probability goes closer to 0.5
This shows: the theoretical probability goes closer and closer to the experimental probability of heads and tails
Answer:
278°
Step-by-step explanation:
m arc BAC = 360 -(2×41)
= 360 - 82 = 278°
Answer:
1. sum of term = 465
2. nth term of the AP = 30n - 10
Step-by-step explanation:
1. The sum of all natural number from 1 to 30 can be computed as follows. The first term a = 1 and the common difference d = 1 . Therefore
sum of term = n/2(a + l)
where
a = 1
l = last term = 30
n = number of term
sum of term = 30/2(1 + 30)
sum of term = 15(31)
sum of term = 465
2.The nth term of the sequence can be gotten below. The sequence is 20, 50, 80 ......
The first term which is a is equals to 20. The common difference is 50 - 20 or 80 - 50 = 30. Therefore;
a = 20
d = 30
nth term of an AP = a + (n - 1)d
nth term of an AP = 20 + (n - 1)30
nth term of an AP = 20 + 30n - 30
nth term of the AP = 30n - 10
The nth term formula can be used to find the next term progressively. where n = number of term
The sequence will be 20, 50, 80, 110, 140, 170, 200..............
Answer is: 1/156 as a fraction
