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Black_prince [1.1K]
3 years ago
6

Tanx cosx = 0

Mathematics
1 answer:
shtirl [24]3 years ago
5 0
You're almost finished.

(sin/cos) times cos = 0

Look at the left side.  You could write it as (sin x cos) / cos = 0
and simply divide numerator and denominator by the cosine (cancel it).

Then what do you have left ? . . .  <u>sin(x) = 0</u>       Do I need to finish this for you ?
You might be interested in
Solve for substitution 8x+2y=13 and 4x+y=11
damaskus [11]
Solving for X:
1) y=-8x+6.5   y=-4x+11
2) -8x+6.5=-4x+11
3) -8x=-4x+11-6.5        (Subtract 6.5 from both sides)
4) -8x+4x=11-6.5         (Add 4x to both sides)
5)-4x=4.5
5)x=-1.125

Solving for Y:
y=-8(-1.125)+6.5
y=9+6.5
y=15.5

y=-4(-1.125)+11
y=4.5+11
y=15.5

x=-1.125
y=15.5
or
(-1.125,15.5)
7 0
3 years ago
Suppose that x has a binomial distribution with n = 201 and p = 0.45. (Round np and n(1-p) answers to 2 decimal places. Round yo
ycow [4]

Answer:

a) It can be used because np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5.

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial distribution and approximation to the normal:

The binomial distribution has two parameters:

n, which is the number of trials.

p, which is the probability of a success on a single trial.

If np and n(1-p) are both greater than 5, the normal approximation to the binomial can appropriately be used.

In this question:

n = 201, p = 0.45

So, lets verify the conditions:

np = 201*0.45 = 90.45 > 5

n(1-p) = 201*(1-0.45) = 201*0.55 = 110.55 > 5

Since both np and n(1-p) are greater than 5, the approximation can be used.

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Read 2 more answers
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