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LekaFEV [45]
3 years ago
15

כ שדורש Cוטו LTULIUועי . f(x) = 9(7)*

Mathematics
1 answer:
Novosadov [1.4K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

.

Step-by-step explanation:

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During the quarantine, the Jones family installed a rectangular pool in their backyard that was 10 feet wide and 15 feet long. T
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15 feet martins family work for with the dodo code for a mask is a horrible thing to ware a little kid in a sweat room or the room with the kids and then they have a white black brown brown green green orange brown orange green green orange orange brown orange orange orange
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3 years ago
[PEOPLE WITH ALLERGIES]
xeze [42]

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I have super sensitive skin and one time I used fancy lotion and I broke out completely. It was embarrassing because you could see dots all over my face.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Eights rooks are placed randomly on a chess board. What is the probability that none of the rooks can capture any of the other r
erastova [34]

Answer:

The probability is \frac{56!}{64!}

Step-by-step explanation:

We can divide the amount of favourable cases by the total amount of cases.

The total amount of cases is the total amount of ways to put 8 rooks on a chessboard. Since a chessboard has 64 squares, this number is the combinatorial number of 64 with 8, 64 \choose 8 .

For a favourable case, you need one rook on each column, and for each column the correspondent rook should be in a diferent row than the rest of the rooks. A favourable case can be represented by a bijective function  f : A \rightarrow A , with A = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8}. f(i) = j represents that the rook located in the column i is located in the row j.

Thus, the total of favourable cases is equal to the total amount of bijective functions between a set of 8 elements. This amount is 8!, because we have 8 possibilities for the first column, 7 for the second one, 6 on the third one, and so on.

We can conclude that the probability for 8 rooks not being able to capture themselves is

\frac{8!}{64 \choose 8} = \frac{8!}{\frac{64!}{8!56!}} = \frac{56!}{64!}

7 0
3 years ago
Find the derivative of the function f(x)2x^4+x^3-x^2+4
eduard

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

can i pls have brainliest??

3 0
2 years ago
Decide whether the Experiment is a Binomial Experiment. If it is not, explain why:
devlian [24]

Answer:

Experiment 1 and 3 are clear binomial experiments.

Experiment 2 needs tweaking to be a binomial experiment.

Check Explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

A binomial experiment is one in which

1) The probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials.

2) It usually consists of a fixed number of runs/trials with only two possible outcomes, a success or a failure.

3) The outcome of each trial/run of a binomial experiment is independent of one another.

Checking each of the experiments one at a time

- You observe the gender of the next 850 babies born at a local hospital. The random variable represents the number of boys.

For this experiment,

1) The probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials as it is a 50% chance that each child examined is a boy.

2) It consists of a fixed number of runs (850) with only two possible outcomes, success (if it's a boy) and failure (if it's a girl).

3) The probability of each trial being a boy is independent from all the other trials.

Hence, this experiment is a binomial experiment.

- You draw a marble 350 times from a bag with three colors of marbles. The random variable represents the color of marble that is drawn.

For this experiment,

1) If the marbles aren't being replaced after each draw, the probability of success, that is, picking a particular marble colour changes from trial to trial.

2) Although, it consist of a fixed number of runs/trials, there are more than two possible outcomes with 3 types of colours. Unless the experiment focuses on one colour and treats the other two colours as 'others', this condition too isn't satisfied.

3) Without replacement, the probability of success (picking a particular marble colour) in one trial isn't independent of the other trials.

This is not a binomial experiment as it doesn't satisfy all the required conditions to be one.

- Testing a cough suppressant using 820 people to determine if it is effective. The random variable represents the number of people who find the cough suppressant to be effective.

1) The probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials as it is the same chance that each person finds the cough suppressant to be effective.

2) It consists of a fixed number of runs (820) with only two possible outcomes, success (cough suppressant is effective) and failure (cough suppressant isn't effective).

3) The probability of each trial being a person that finds the cough suppressant to be effective, is independent from all the other trials.

Hence, this experiment is a binomial experiment.

Hope this Helps!!!

7 0
3 years ago
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