6/4 would be the fraction. In simplest form, it is 3/2. This gives you 1 1/2.
Answer:
(-3,-2)
Step-by-step explanation:
Starting at the point (1, 0)
Now we move don 2 units (so the y-value reduces in two units) making now the point (1,0-2) which is (1, -2)
then we move to the left 4 units (so the x-value has now to be decreased in 4 units) making the point: (1-4, -2) which is (-3, -2)
Answer:
11.4 years
Step-by-step explanation:
We assume you want to know the time it takes for Lucy's investment of $1200 to have a value of $6400. The compound interest formula is good for finding that.
FV = P(1 +r/n)^(nt)
for principal P invested at rate r per year for t years, compounded n times per year. We want to find t such that ...
6400 = 1200(1 +0.15/4)^(4t)
16/3 = 1.0375^(4t) . . . . divide by 1200
log(16/3) = 4t·log(1.0375) . . . . take logarithms
t = log(16/3)/(4·log(1.0375)) ≈ 11.4
It will take about 11.4 years for Lucy's investment value to be $6400.
By converting into parametric equations,
<span><span>x(θ)=r(θ)cosθ=cos2θ<span>cosθ
</span></span><span>y(θ)=r(θ)sinθ=cos2θsinθ</span></span>
By Product Rule,
<span>x'(θ)=−sin2θcosθ−cos2θsinθ</span>
<span>x'<span>(π/2)</span>=−<span>sin(π)</span><span>cos<span>(π/2)</span></span>−<span>cos(π)</span><span>sin<span>(π/2)</span></span>=1</span>
<span>y'(θ)=−sin2θsinθ+cos2θcosθ</span>
<span>y'<span>(π/2)</span>=−<span>sin(π)</span><span>sin<span>(π/2)</span></span>+<span>cos(π)</span><span>cos<span>(π/2)</span></span>=0</span>
So, the slope m of the curve can be found by
<span>m=<span>dy/dx</span><span>∣<span>θ=<span>π2
</span></span></span>= <span><span>y'<span>(π/2)/</span></span><span>x'<span>(π/2)
</span></span></span></span>=0/1
=0
I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly.
Answer:
Ten miles
Step-by-step explanation:
Use this inequality
20 + 3m = 5m
