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julsineya [31]
3 years ago
10

Due to ____, market forces should realign the cross exchange rate between two foreign currencies based on the spot exchange rate

s of the two currencies against the U.S. dollar.​A. forward realignment arbitrageB. triangular arbitrageC. covered interest arbitrageD. locational arbitrage
Business
1 answer:
gayaneshka [121]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct answer is C

Explanation:

Covered interest arbitrage (CIA), it is an strategy or tool of arbitrage trading, where the investor capitalizes on the rate of interest which is differential among two countries through using the forward contract for eliminate the exposure or cover to exchange the rate risk.

So, because of covered interest arbitrage, the market forces realign the cross exchange rate among two countries grounded on spot exchange rates of two currencies.

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What is another way of referring to workers and factory owners? socialists and democrats the people and the patricians labor and
klemol [59]

Answer: Labor and Capital.

Explanation:

Another way in which factory workers and factory owners can be referred to, is the laborers and the capital.

The factory workers are the laborers, because they carry out job and get paid salary/wages.

The factory owners are the ones that supply the capital needed in the factory and gain profit from their investment.

7 0
3 years ago
Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Roun
Dimas [21]

Answer:

a. Futuere Value = $19,245.86

b. Futuere Value = $3,060.86

c. Futuere Value = $0

d-1. Futuere Value = $21,170.44

d-2. Futuere Value = $3,213.90

d-3. Futuere Value = $0

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged. They are therefore sorted before answering the question as follows:

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to the nearest cent.

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Explanation of the answer is now provided as follows:

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Ordinary Annuity given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) ................................. (1)

Where,

FV = Future value of the amount =?

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721

FV = $19,245.855390489

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = 19,245.86

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125

FV = $3,060.860765625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * (0 / 0)

FV = $200 * 0

FV = $0

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Annuity Due is given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) * (1 + r) ................................. (2)

Where,

FV = Future value

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

d-1. Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10) * (1 + 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721 * 1.10

FV = $2,1170.4409295379

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $2,1170.44

d-2. Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05) * (1 + 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125 * 1.05

FV = $3,213.90380390625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,213.90

d-3. Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0) * (1 + 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * (0 / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * 0 * 1

FV = $0

8 0
3 years ago
A government is torn between selling annual pollution allowances and setting an annual pollution tax. Unlike in the messy real w
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]

Answer: Both will raise the same amount

Explanation:

The government here is certain that it can achieve the same quantity and price regardless of if it uses a pollution tax or pollution allowance. This means that it would be charging the companies the same regardless of the method used.

Both methods would therefore yield the same amount if the government uses either of them.

3 0
2 years ago
Ramirez Company installs a computerized manufacturing machine in its factory at the beginning of the year at a cost of $48,400.
nasty-shy [4]

Answer:

$3,340

Explanation:

Step 1  : Determine the Depreciation rate

<em>Depreciation rate = Cost - Salvage Value ÷ Estimated Units</em>

Depreciation rate = $0.10

Step 2 : Depreciation Expense

<em>Depreciation Expense = Depreciation rate x units produced</em>

Depreciation Expense = $3,340

Therefore,

the machine's second-year depreciation using the units-of-production method is $3,340

4 0
3 years ago
On the Budget Challenge Cash Flow Spreadsheet (CFS) (this file is downloadable on the "How to Play" page of the website), what c
stira [4]
Deposit column. You can also state in the comments section that it was interest earned from the checking account.
7 0
3 years ago
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