We know a or b != 0
but a-b==0 so both are the same unknown number
b/a must = 1
so
a/b is equivalent to b/a as a/b=1 as well.
So the last answer choice.
The answer is 95.4525 percent because you would use an equation
n!/(r!(n-r)! x (P)^x * (1-P)^(n-x)
Plug in the number correspondingly
N= 10
R= 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 (You will have to do each individual, if you have a Ti-nspire calculator however there is a built program called binomialcdf.
P= .37
x = r
After plugging this is the achieved answer is 95.4525
(.0578 + .1529 + .2394 + .2461 + .1734 + .0849) x 100
additive may be a little off due to rounding.
Answer:
9760
Step-by-step explanation:
Interest=((P.A.)*(Interest Rate)*(Time))/100
Interest=(4000*122*2)/100
Interest=9760
14c³d²-21c²d³/14cd
= (196c^4d³-21c²d³)/ 14cd
= (196c³d²-21cd²)/14
= (28c³d²-3cd²)/2
I hope that's help !
Answer: 
<u>Step-by-setp explanation:</u>
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