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2 years ago

Percent of change $3 to $2

1 answer:

5 0

33%
you take $3.00 and move the decimal over two places to the right thats 300% so then you divide that by 3 and got 100% and divide that by 3 and get 33.3% round it to the nearest whole number and its 33%

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HELP PLEASE!!!!!! Anaya bought a sweater that was on sale. The sweater originally cost $34.50 but was purchased for $27.60. What

Elan Coil [88]

Answer: 80%. Hope this helps, please consider making me Brainliest.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the percentage, divide the sale cost by the original cost:

27.60/34.50

Let's multiply both sides by 10 to make the operation easier:

27.6/34.5 ( I eliminated the zero's because they kind of have no use) -->

276/345, now solve:

276/345 = 0.8

0.8 = 80%

The percentage is 80%.

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7 months ago

Sin40°-sin20°/cos220°-cos200=√3

Mumz [18]

Answer:

1.7320508

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago

Mr. Blackburn is buying new carpet for his family room and hallway. The floor plan is shown below.

larisa86 [58]

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Step-by-step explanation:

3.2 times 1.5 plus 6 times4.2= 30 meters of carpet.

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2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What’s the mathematical expression for “five times x is fewer than 12”

Musya8 [376]

Answer:

5x<12

Step-by-step explanation:

Five times x is equally 5x fewer than is equally < # 5x<12

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2 years ago

(1/1+sintheta)=sec^2theta-secthetatantheta pls help me verify this

Xelga [282]

Answer:

See Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to verify the equation:

$\displaystyle \frac{1}{1+\sin\theta} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta$

To start, we can multiply the fraction by (1 - sin(θ)). This yields:

$\displaystyle \frac{1}{1+\sin\theta}\left(\frac{1-\sin\theta}{1-\sin\theta}\right) = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta$

Simplify. The denominator uses the difference of two squares pattern:

$\displaystyle \frac{1-\sin\theta}{\underbrace{1-\sin^2\theta}_{(a+b)(a-b)=a^2-b^2}} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta$

Recall that sin²(θ) + cos²(θ) = 1. Hence, cos²(θ) = 1 - sin²(θ). Substitute:

$\displaystyle \displaystyle \frac{1-\sin\theta}{\cos^2\theta} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta$

Split into two separate fractions:

$\displaystyle \frac{1}{\cos^2\theta} -\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos^2\theta} = \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta\tan\theta$

Rewrite the two fractions:

$\displaystyle \left(\frac{1}{\cos\theta}\right)^2-\frac{\sin\theta}{\cos\theta}\cdot \frac{1}{\cos\theta}=\sec^2\theta - \sec\theta \tan\theta$

By definition, 1 / cos(θ) = sec(θ) and sin(θ)/cos(θ) = tan(θ). Hence:

$\displaystyle \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta\tan\theta \stackrel{\checkmark}{=} \sec^2\theta - \sec\theta\tan\theta$

Hence verified.

8 0

2 years ago