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aleksklad [387]
3 years ago
6

An on-premises workload consists of a single server with an Apache instance and a MySQL database. The Solutions Architect plans

to migrate the on-premises database to MySQL on Amazon RDS using multiple Availability Zones. What solution ensures that the remaining workload will be highly?
Business
1 answer:
kakasveta [241]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Provision the workload in an Auto Scaling group across Availability Zones, with a minimum of two Amazon EC2 instances Use an Application Load Balancer in front of an Auto Scaling group.

Explanation:

To ensure high availability configure at least 2 EC2 instances so if one fails the other will be a backup. Also aouto scale across various regional availability groups. Worldwide Amazon has various availability stations so making the workload available across multiple regions ensure it will not be affected incase a region goes down.

You might be interested in
Why businesses and entrepreneurs are more likely to voluntarily undertake the projects that consumers value highly relative to p
olga nikolaevna [1]

Businesses and entrepreneurs are more willing to take up projects with high relative profit because they are looking for profits.

Explanation:

The government sponsored projects which are on offer do not generate as much revenue for a firm that they can earn for a similar project in which the per unit cost of production will be covered better as the consumer will be paying them more.

In government funded projects, they will not receive enough benefits from the government to cover their costs and justify the price drop which comes with people expecting lower rates from products associated with the work of the government.

Thus is it viable to work on private projects more.

3 0
3 years ago
One of your customers is delinquent on his accounts payable balance. You’ve mutually agreed to a repayment schedule of $500 per
inessss [21]

Answer:

Here we need to find the length of an annuity. We know the interest rate, the PV, and the payments. Using the PVA equation:

PVA =C({1 – [1/(1 +r)t]} /r)

$14,500 = $500{[1 – (1/1.0155)t] / 0.0155}

Now we solve for t:

1/1.0155t = 1 − {[($14,500)/($500)](0.0155)}

1/1.0155t= 0.5505

1.0155t= 1/(0.5505) = 1.817

t = ln 1.817 / ln 1.0155 = 38.83 months

<u>Account will be paid off in 38.83 months.</u>

7 0
3 years ago
When several systems operate in parallel, total system capacity is the largest value of the individual system capacities. a. Tru
Fed [463]

Answer:

b. False

Explanation:

It is the opposite, when several systems operate in parallel, total system capacity is the lowest value of the individual system capacities.

For e.g., sectors A, B and C operate in parallel. Sector A can handle 100 units per hour, sector B can handle 150 units per hour and sector C can handle 75 units per hour. The system's capacity is 75 units per hour. If you want to operate at 100 units per hour, a queue will in sector C.

6 0
3 years ago
An investment offers $5,900 per year for 15 years, with the first payment occurring one year from now. If the required return is
drek231 [11]

Answer:

Today, the investment is worth $31,997.29

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

An investment offers $5,900 per year for 15 years, with the first payment occurring one year from now. The required return is 6 percent

First, we need to calculate the final value, using the following formula:

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual pay= 5,900

n= 15

i= 0.06

FV= {5,900*[(1.06^15)-1]} / 0.06= $137,328.22

Now, we can determine the present value:

PV= FV/ (1+i)^n

PV= 137,328.22/ 1.06^25= $31,997.29

4 0
3 years ago
Benz Company is considering the purchase of a machine that costs $100,000, has a useful life of 18 years, and no salvage value.
Marysya12 [62]

Answer:

B. $14,600

Explanation:

The annual cash inflows associated with the machine can be found by the following expression, where 'r' is the company's discount rate of 12% and 'n' is the useful life of the equipment of 18 years:

-investment+ X*\frac{(1 - (1 + r)^{-n})}{r} =NPV\\\\-\$100,000 + X*\frac{(1 - (1 + r)^{-n})}{r} =\$5,850\\-\$100,000 + X*\frac{(1 - (1 + 0.12)^{-18})}{0.12} =\$5,850\\X=\frac{\$105,850}{7.25} \\X=\$14,600

Annual cash inflows are $14,600.

8 0
3 years ago
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