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garik1379 [7]
3 years ago
12

GASB has issued a proposed standard that would more clearly define fiduciary activities and change the categories of fiduciary f

unds. One of the issues the proposed standard is intended to address is the practice of some governments to classify activities as trusts when no trust agreement exists. Activities meeting the definition of fiduciary in nature but that lack a formal trust agreement will in the future be reported in a new category. What is the new category?a. Custodial fund.b. Non-custodial fund.c. Dedicated fund.e. Pass-through activities fund.
Business
1 answer:
kramer3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a. Custodial fund

Explanation:

Custodial transaction and fund refers to the transaction, in which there is a beneficiary and a responsible. The responsible person manages the transactions of custodial account, and takes proper care of return and investment on such account.

This is basically an agency service as the person who is beneficiary is just depositing the amount top be invested which is then taken care of as an agent.

The correct option is a.

Custodial Fund.

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The independent cases are listed below includes all balance sheet accounts related to operating activities: Net income Depreciat
OLEGan [10]

Answer: Please see below

Explanation: The values from  the question are scattered, but here is how they should appear

                                                    Case A       Case B         Case C  

Net income                               $310,000         15,000 $420,000    

Depreciation expense                  40,000   150,000       80,000

Accounts receivable increase

(decrease                                      100,000 (200,000) (20,000)

Inventory increase (decrease)        (50,000)   35,000   50,000

Accounts payable increase           (50,000)   120,000   70,000

Accrued liabilities increase

(decrease)                                  60,000  (220,000) (40,000)

To calculate the operating activities section of cash flows for each of the given cases,

we use the Indirect method formula

Net cash flow from operating actvities  = Net Income + Non-Cash Expenses – Increase in Working Capital

Net cash flow from operating actvities =Net Income +/- Changes in Assets & Liabilities + Non-Cash Expenses

Net cash flow from operating actvities = Net Income + Depreciation + Stock Based Compensation + Deferred Tax + Other Non Cash Items – Increase in Accounts Receivable – Increase in Inventory + Increase in Accounts Payable + Increase in Accrued Expenses + Increase in Deferred Revenue

Following the formulae above, we can determine what expense should be added or subtracted to give the operating activities of cash flow below as

                                  Case A                   Case B               Case C

Net Income               $310,000                15,000         $420,000  

Net Income Adjustments to Reconcile Net Income to net Cash provided by operating activities

Depreciation                   40,000              150,000       80,000

Changes in Assets and Liabilities

Accounts Receivable        - 100,000       200,000           20,000

Inventory                              50,000           -35,000        - 50,000    

Accounts Payable            -50,000            120,000       70,000

Accrued Liabilities              60,000           - 220,000       -40,000

Net Cash Provided by Operating Activities

                                      $310,000         $230,000       $500,000

6 0
2 years ago
If no harm results from an allegedly negligent act, there is no liability.
mixas84 [53]
The answer to your question is False
7 0
3 years ago
Someone help me with this plz
shepuryov [24]

Answer:

With what

Explanation:

post the pic/question next time

8 0
2 years ago
MGM Resorts Incorporated is expected to grow at an exceptionally high rate over the next 2 years due to the success of Macau cas
Burka [1]

Answer:

The value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today will be $16.42

Explanation:

In order to calculate the value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today we would have to calculate the following steps:

Step-1, Dividend for the next 2 years

Dividend per share in Year 0 (D0) = $1.20 per share

Dividend per share in Year 1 (D1) = $1.4400 per share [$1.20 x 120%]

Dividend per share in Year 2 (D2) = $1.7280 per share [$1.4400 x 120%]

Step-2, Share Price in Year 2

Dividend Growth Rate after Year 2 (g) = 4.00% per year

Required Rate of Return (Ke) = 14.00%

Share Price in Year 2 (P2) = D2(1 + g) / (Ke – g)

= $1.7280(1 + 0.04) / (0.14 – 0.04)

= $1.7971 / 0.10

= $17.97 per share

Step-3, The Current Stock Price

As per Dividend Discount Model, Current Stock Price the aggregate of the Present Value of the future dividend payments and the present value the share price in year 2

Year      Cash flow ($)        PVF at 14.00%           Present Value of cash flows ($)

                                                                             [Cash flows x PVF]

1            1.4400                   0.877193                           1.26

2           1.7280                  0.769468                          1.33

2            17.97                   0.769468                          13.83

TOTAL   16.42

Hence, the value of a share of MGM Resorts stock today will be $16.42

6 0
3 years ago
What are the c’s of credit
Anit [1.1K]
The five C's of credit<span> is a system used by lenders to gauge the creditworthiness of potential borrowers. The system weighs five characteristics of the borrower and conditions of the loan, attempting to estimate the chance of default. The five </span>C's of credit<span> are character, capacity, capital, collateral and conditions.

please give me brainliest</span>
3 0
3 years ago
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