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xz_007 [3.2K]
3 years ago
9

Tabitha defines a sphere as the set of all points equidistant from a single point. Is Tabitha's definition valid?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Advocard [28]3 years ago
5 0

definition is valid since center is exactly 1radius away from any point on the outersurface.

other figures do not fit this defn

Ipatiy [6.2K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

<h2>Tabitha's defintion is valid.</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

Her definition is valid because the sphere is basically defined by its radius, which is the equidistant points towards a center. If points are not equidistant, then that's not a sphere.

Also, Tabitha is considering "a set of points" referring to infinite points on the surface of the sphere. The single point she mentioned is the center.

Therefore, Tabitha's definition is valid because she's considering all elements that define a sphere.

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tankabanditka [31]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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we have 12 yd so 12/2= 6

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A diagonals of a parallelogram measures 37 inches. The size measures 35 inches and 1 foot. Is the parallelogram a rectangle?
Lostsunrise [7]
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6 0
3 years ago
If 2 angles have the same angle measure they are said to be what
DanielleElmas [232]

2 angles that have the same angle measure are congruent.

Given that the two angles have the same angle measure.

Congruence is a term reserved for geometry. Two metrics are congruent when you can perfectly map to each other by mirroring, rotating, and translating without distortion.

We know that two shapes or objects are congruent if they have the same shape and the same size. For two angles to be congruent, they must coincide when they are overlapped. This is only possible if the two angles are equal.

Therefore, if two angles have the same measure, then they are said to be congruent.

Learn more about congruent angle from here brainly.com/question/2938476

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8 0
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