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2 years ago

Marine magnetic anomalies result from seafloor spreading in conjunction with

Physics

1 answer:

Artemon [7]2 years ago

7 0

Earths magnetic field

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An electron is a particle with a ____.

Dahasolnce [82]

A beta particle. Hoped I help. Sorry if it wrong.

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The nuclear equation is incomplete.<br><br><br>What particle completes the equation?

Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

$_{6}^{12} C$

Explanation:

$_{1}^{1}H+_{7}^{15}N ---> _{6}^{12} C+ _{2}^{4}He$

1+7 = 6+2 =8 -protons

1+15 = 12+4 = 16 - protons +neutrons

3 0

3 years ago

If a car has a kinetic energy of 40000 J and is moving at a velocity of 25 m/s, what is the mass of the car? KE=1/2mv

ohaa [14]

Answer:

3200 Kg

Explanation:

Just apply the formula:

40.000 = 1/2 . m . 25

80.000 = 25m

m = 80.000/25

m = 3200 Kg

7 0

2 years ago

The density of mobile electrons in copper metal is 8.4 1028 m-3. Suppose that i = 4.6 1018 electrons/s are drifting through a co

Vesna [10]

Answer:

The time is 106.7 minute.

Explanation:

Given that,

Density $= 8.4\times10^{28}\ m^3$

Current $i = 4.6\times10^{18}\ electron/s$

Diameter of wire = 1.2 mm

Length = 31 cm

We need to calculate the drift velocity

Using formula of drift velocity

$v_{d}=\dfrac{I}{neA}$

$v_{d}=\dfrac{Ne}{tne\times\pi r^2}$

Put the value into the formula

$v_{d}=\dfrac{4.6\times10^{18}}{8.4\times10^{28}\times\pi\times(0.6\times10^{-3})^2}$

$v_{d}=4.842\times10^{-5}\ m/s$

We need to calculate the time

Using formula for time

$v_{d}=\dfrac{l}{t}$

$t=\dfrac{l}{v_{d}}$

Where, l = length

$v_{d}$ = drift velocity

Put the value into the formula

$t=\dfrac{31\times10^{-2}}{4.842\times10^{-5}}$

$t=6402.31\ sec$

$t=106.7\ minute$

Hence, The time is 106.7 minute.

7 0

3 years ago

The diagram shown represents a block-and-tackle pulley system on which an effort of W Newtons supports a load of 120.0N. If the

natta225 [31]

Answer:

50 N

Explanation:

Efficiency of a machine can't be more than 1, so I assume you mean 40%. (Remember, efficiency and mechanical advantage are not the same).

Efficiency is the ratio of work out of a system to the work in to the system.

e = Wout / Win

Work is force times distance, so:

e = (Fout × Dout) / (Fin × Din)

Rearranging:

Fin = (Fout × Dout) / (e × Din)

Fin = (Fout / e) × (Dout / Din)

Fin = (Fout / e) / (Din / Dout)

We know that e = 0.40, and Fout = 120 N. Since there are 6 pulleys, we also know that Din/Dout = 6.

F = (120 N / 0.4) / 6

F = 50 N

5 0

2 years ago