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Furkat [3]
3 years ago
8

The graph of an inverse trigonometric function passes through the point (1, pi/2). Which of the following could be the equation

of the function?
A) y=cos^-1 x
B) y=cot^-1 x
C) y=sin^-1 x
D) y=tan^-1 x
Mathematics
1 answer:
rodikova [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: C) y=sin^-1 x

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, the graph of an inverse trigonometric function will pass through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}),

If this point satisfies the function,

For the function y=cos^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=cos^{-1}1=0

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cos^{-1} x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=cot^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=cot^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function y=cot^{-1}x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cot^{-1}x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=sin^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=sin^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{2}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is satisfying function y=sin^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=sin^{-1} x is passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

For the function y=tan^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=tan^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=tan^{-1} x is not passing through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

Hence, Option C is correct.

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