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Andre45 [30]
3 years ago
6

A = 1/2(a+x)h solve for x

Mathematics
1 answer:
ankoles [38]3 years ago
7 0

For this case we have the following equation:

A = \frac {1} {2} (a + x) * h

We must clear the variable "x":

We multiply by 2 on both sides of the equation:

2A = (a + x) * h

We divide by h on both sides of the equation:

\frac {2A} {h} = a + x

We subtract "a" on both sides of the equation:\frac {2A} {h} -a = x

Answer:x = \frac {2A} {h} -a

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denis23 [38]
0.024 is 2.4%
0.125 is 12.5%
0.05 is 5%

Showing the workMultiply 0.05 by 100 to convert to percent:

<span>0.05 × 100 = </span>5 %

0.5 is 50%
Showing the work - Multiply 0.5 by 100 to convert to percent:

0.5 × 100 = 50 %
Showing the work -multiply  0.024 by 100 to convert to percent:

0.024 × 100 = 2.4 %


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3 years ago
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8,000 of 2ounces how many make 16 ounces
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1,000 I guess I don't really understand the question
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7 0
3 years ago
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Find the probability of at least 6 failures in 7 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success in any one
oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)

And we can find the individual probabilities:

P(X=6)=(7C6)(0.91)^6 (1-0.91)^{7-6}=0.358

P(X=7)=(7C7)(0.91)^7 (1-0.91)^{7-7}=0.517

And replacing we got:

P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)= 0.358+0.517=0.875

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=7, p=1-0.09=0.91)

The probability associated to a failure would be p =1-0.09 = 0.91

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

And we want to find this probability:

P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)

And we can find the individual probabilities:

P(X=6)=(7C6)(0.91)^6 (1-0.91)^{7-6}=0.358

P(X=7)=(7C7)(0.91)^7 (1-0.91)^{7-7}=0.517

And replacing we got:

P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)= 0.358+0.517=0.875

6 0
3 years ago
Asap math.<br><br><br><br><br><br><br> .........
Mademuasel [1]
Answer: 15

Step by step explanation:
4 0
3 years ago
Can someone please help me with this ?? im really confused but i need to pass this test!
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

84^{\circ}

Step-by-step explanation:

The measure of an inscribed angle is exactly half the measure of the arc it forms. Thus, we have the following equation:

2(7x-7)=9x+21

Solving, we get:

2(7x-7)=9x+21,\\14x-14=9x+21,\\5x=35,\\x=7

Plugging in x=7 into 9x+21:

\widehat{DG}=9(7)+21,\\\widehat{DG}=63+21,\\\widehat{DG}=\boxed{84^{\circ}}

8 0
3 years ago
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