Answer:
PMT x {[(1 + r)^n – 1]/r}
Explanation:
The formula for calculation the future value of an ordinary annuity is given as :
PMT x {[(1 + r)^n – 1]/r} ;
Where ;
PMT = Payment amount ; r = discount rate
n = number of payments
For ordinary annuity, payment are made at the end of each period as opposed payment made at the beginning of the period for annuity due.
Answer:
The explanation of this question is given below in the explanation section.
Explanation:
The correct answer to this fill in blank question is workforce capability.
<u>The term workforce capability</u> refers to an organization’s ability to ensure sufficient staffing levels to accomplish its work processes and successfully deliver products and services to customers, including the ability to meet seasonal and varying demands.
Workforce Capability:
The term “workforce capability” refers to your organization’s ability to accomplish its work processes (might include all process to produce the product or service) through the knowledge (accumulated intellectual resources of organization), abilities, skills, and competencies of its people.
Capability may include the ability to build and sustain relationships with customers; to develop new products and work processes; o innovate and transition to new technologies; and to meet changing business, market, and regulatory demands.
The correct answer is B.
The interviewer will be taking notes with recommendations for the next person in the process, since the interviewer won't be the sole person making the rejection/acceptance decision.
Savings accounts is the most liquid
Answer:
The answer is $56.68
Explanation:
Solution
We recall that:
The firm paid a dividend of =$7.80
The projected growth of dividends is at a rate = 9.0%
The annual return = 24.0%
Now,
V = ($7.80 * (1.09)/(.24 - 0.9)
= (8.502)/(.24-0.9)
= (8.502) * (-0.66)
= $56.68
Therefore, this would be the most we would pay for the stock. If we paid less than that, our return would be above the 24%.
