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olya-2409 [2.1K]
3 years ago
6

Prebankruptcy counseling includes all of the following except:

Business
1 answer:
Anon25 [30]3 years ago
7 0
My answer would probably be B!
You might be interested in
Target's liabilities exceed owners' equity.<br> a) true<br> b) false
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer: True

Explanation:

As of February 2020, Target Corp's total liabilities were listed to be $30,946,000,000 while its shareholder equity was significantly lower at $11,833,000,000.

Target Corp therefore does indeed have liabilities that exceed owners equity and by a substantial amount. This has also been the trend since at least 2015.

4 0
3 years ago
Llywelyn, Inc. reports the following information for​ July: Sales Revenue $ 1 comma 000 comma 000 Variable Costs 200 comma 000 O
trapecia [35]

Answer:

A. $ 420,000

Explanation:

We have to find the missing information

Sales revenues            1,000,000

variable cost              <u>    (200,000)</u>

Contribution Margin       800,000

Fixed Cost                <u>            X         </u>

Operating Income          380,000

Contribution margin - operating income = fixed cost

$800,000 - $380,000 = fixed cost

fixed cost =   $420,000

6 0
3 years ago
A copy machine acquired with a cost of $1,410 has an estimated useful life of 4 years. It is also expected to have a useful oper
mafiozo [28]

Answer:

a. Straight-line method

Depreciation Expense for the first year: $333.75

b. Double-declining-balance method

Depreciation Expense for the first year: $667.5

c. Units-of-output method

Depreciation Expense for the first year: $450

Explanation:

a. Straight-line method

Depreciation Expense each year is calculated by following formula

Annual Depreciation Expense = (Cost of machine − Residual Value)/Useful Life = ($1,410 - $75)/4 = $333.75

Depreciation Expense for the first year: $333.75

b. Double-declining-balance method

Under the straight-line method, useful life is 4 years, so the asset's annual depreciation will be 25% of the Depreciable cost.

Depreciable cost = Total cost of machine - Residual value =  $1,410-$75 = $1.335

Under the double-declining-balance method the 25% straight line rate is doubled to 50% - multiplied times

Depreciation Expense for the first year = $1.335 x 50% = $667.5

c. Units-of-output method

Depreciation Expense per copy = (Cost of machine − Residual Value)/Life in Number of Units  = ($1,410 - $75)/13,350 = $0.1

Depreciation Expense for the first year = Depreciation Expense per copy x number of copies were made the first year = $0.1 x 4,500 = $450

3 0
3 years ago
Cushing Manufacturing assigns overhead based on machine hours. The MillingDepartment logs 1,800 machine hours and Cutting Depart
morpeh [17]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Milling work in progress A/c Dr $9,000

Cutting work in progress A/c Dr $15,000

     To Manufacturing overhead A/c             $24,000

(Being overhead allocation is recorded)

The milling work in progress is computed by

= Milling department machine-hours × $ overhead rate

= 1,800 machine hours × $5

= $9,000

And, The cutting work in progress is computed by

= Cutting department machine-hours × $ overhead rate

= 3,000 machine hours × $5

= $15,000

5 0
3 years ago
Repost because it got lost in a sea of questions)
saveliy_v [14]

Answer:

YESSSSSS

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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