Answer:
I think it's A, I'm not sure though
Answer:
A) False
B) False
C) True
D) False
Explanation:
A) False, because when leaving the field, the coil experiences a magnetic force to the right.
B) When the loop is entering the field, the magnetic flux through it will increase. Thus, induced magnetic field will try to decrease the magnetic flux i.e. the induced magnetic field will be opposite to the applied magnetic field. The applied magnetic field is into the plane of figure and thus the induced magnetic field is out of the plane of figure. Due to that reason, the current would be counterclockwise. So the statement is false.
C) When the loop is leaving the field, the magnetic flux through the loop will decrease. Thus, induced magnetic field will try to increase the magnetic flux i.e. the inducued magnetic field will be in the same direction as the applied magnetic field. The applied magnetic field is into the plane of figure and thus the induced magnetic field is also into the plane of figure. Due to that reason, the current would be clockwise. So the statement is true.
D) False because when entering the field magnetic force will be toward left side
Answer:
μ = 0.125
Explanation:
To solve this problem, which is generally asked for the coefficient of friction, we will use the conservation of energy.
Let's start working on the ramp
starting point. Highest point of the ramp
Em₀ = U = m h y
final point. Lower part of the ramp, before entering the rough surface
= K = ½ m v²
as they indicate that there is no friction on the ramp
Em₀ = Em_{f}
m g y = ½ m v²
v =
we calculate
v = √(2 9.8 0.25)
v = 2.21 m / s
in the rough part we use the relationship between work and kinetic energy
W = ΔK = K_{f} -K₀
as it stops the final kinetic energy is zero
W = -K₀
The work is done by the friction force, which opposes the movement
W = - fr x
friction force has the expression
fr = μ N
let's write Newton's second law for the vertical axis
N-W = 0
N = W = m g
we substitute
-μ m g x = - ½ m v²
μ =
Let's calculate
μ =
μ = 0.125