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Ilia_Sergeevich [38]
3 years ago
8

Lisa’s Custom Print Services produces and sells custom seashore prints. The manager reported $5,400 in fixed expenses, operating

income of $0 at the breakeven point, and a contribution margin per unit of $50. What is the firm’s breakeven point in units using the shortcut approach?
Business
1 answer:
VMariaS [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

108 units

Explanation:

break even point in units = total fixed costs / contribution margin per unit = $5,400 / $50 = 108 units

There are three methods to obtaining a break even point and they all should result in the same answer: equation method, the formula method (or shortcut), and in dollar sales and sales units.

The formula method is also called the shortcut because it's the simplest way.

You might be interested in
Oriole Company reports the following financial information before adjustments. - Dr. Cr. Accounts Receivable $130,100 Allowance
fgiga [73]

Answer:

(a) 4% of accounts receivable

  • Oriole Company estimates bad debts at (a) 4% of accounts receivable  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 35,001  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 35,001

  • (b) 4% of accounts receivable but Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a $1,490 debit balance.

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 39,801  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 39,801

Explanation:

Initial Balance  

Dr Accounts Receivable   $ 130,100

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 3,310

Sales Revenue (all on credit)  

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 880,500  

Cr Sales  $ 880,500

Sales Returns and Allowances    

Dr Sales Returns and Allowances $ 52,830  

Cr Accounts Receivable   $ 52,830

Oriole Company estimates bad debts at (a) 4% of accounts receivable  

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 35,001  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 35,001

To register the adjustment of 4% of accounts receivables it's necessary considerate the values previously recorded in the account.

It means, CREDIT Balance $3,310 and to register the difference.

4% of accounts receivable but Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a $1,490 debit balance.  

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 1,490

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 39,801  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 39,801

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % of accounts receivables as CREDIT.  

Because the company has a debit balance in that account it's necessary to register an entry that compensate the DEBIT value and reflect A CREDIT estimated as % of account receivable.  

FINAL Balance  

Dr Accounts Receivable  $ 957,770  

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 38,311

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

7 0
3 years ago
The markup on a video game is 15% of the sale price. If the video game sells for $58.82, what was the cost (in $)? (Round your a
Tanzania [10]

Answer:

$51. 15

Explanation:

The selling price is $58.82

The mark-up is 15% of the selling price.

The cost price is ???

The $58.82 is 115% of the cost price.

the cost price is 100%

cost price

= 58.82/115 x 100

= $0.5114 X 100

=$51. 15

5 0
3 years ago
ILL MARK YOU AS BRAINLIEST
kipiarov [429]

Answer: b

Explanation: i just did it on my test and got B

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You and your friends want to buy a condo at the beach to time share. Each of you has single peaked preferences with a most prefe
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

Individual                   Cost                                Shares to be enjoyed

Mabel                      $10,000                            10000 / 150000 =  6.67%

Gertrude                 $20000                            20000 / 150000 = 13.3%

Myron                      $30000                            30000 / 150000 = 20%

Wilber                      $40000                            40000 / 150000 = 26.6%

You                          $50000                            50000 / 150000 = 33.3%

Explanation:

peaked preferences

Most preferred value to spend :

Mabel = $10,000

Gertrude = $20,000

Myron = $30,000

Wilber = $40,000

you = $50,000

cost of Condo = $150,000

<u>Implementing a Uniform rule mechanism to allocate costs and shares </u>

The uniform rule ; ∑ j∈I Uj (p) = Ω.

where Ω = fixed amount of resource

hence the summation of all allotment should = Ω ( $150,000 )

Number of friends = 5

cost of condo  = $150,000

If divide equally each person will have to pay ; $150,000 / 5 = $30,000

Total money to be spent by friends = 10,000 + 20,000 + 30,000 + 40,000 + 50,000  = $150,000

Individual                   Cost                                shares to be enjoyed

Mabel                      $10,000                            10000 / 150000 =  6.67∑%

Gertrude                 $20000                            20000 / 150000 = 13.3%

Myron                      $30000                            30000 / 150000 = 20%

Wilber                      $40000                            40000 / 150000 = 26.6%

You                          $50000                            50000 / 150000 = 33.3%

∑shares ≈ 100% ( 150,000 )

6 0
3 years ago
Bob was married to Sandy, and they have a 12-year-old son. Sandy passed away last year. Bob needs to complete his federal income
lukranit [14]

Answer:

Qualifying widower with a dependent child

Explanation:

By filing as a widower with dependent child (the child is a necessary qualification requirement), Bob can use the same tax bracket and retain the same benefits as filing as married. This means that his income will be taxed at a lower rate than if he had filed as single, and he will obtain the same deduction as a married couple (twice the deduction for a single filer).

6 0
3 years ago
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