1/sin^2x-1/tan^2x=
1/sin^2x-1/ (sin^2x/cos^2x)<<sin tan= sin/cos>>
= 1/sin^2x- cos^2x / sin^2x
= (1- cos^2x) / sin^2x <<combining into a single fraction>>
sin^2 x / sin^2x <<since 1- cos^2 x sin^2 x
=1
this simplifies to 1.
You meant pi, pi is a irrational number, but they use 3.14 for approximation, so that is your answer.
Hope this helped!
Nate
Answer: 23.70
Step-by-step explanation:
Because 3.95x6=23.70
