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Marysya12 [62]
3 years ago
7

Please answer this question now in two minutes

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vinil7 [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

NMP and QPR

Step-by-step explanation:

NMP and QPR

<u><em> this pair is the only pair of corresponding angles in this picture</em></u>

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I don't understand e. Please help
dexar [7]
Case 1: Probabilities cannot add up to a number greater (or less) than 1. This would mean there is greater than a 100% chance of something happening which just doesn't make sense. 0.4 + 0.4 + 0.3 = 1,1

Case 2: You cannot have a negative probability. That is claiming that there is a -10% chance of an event happening, there is at the very least a 0%. Despite them "adding" up to 1, the negative probability makes no sense.

Hope I helped!
6 0
3 years ago
The mass of the blue copper sulfate crystal is two-thirds the mass of the red fluorite crystal. Write an equation you can use to
Reptile [31]

Answer: multiplication i think

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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PLEASE HELP I REALLY NEED IT
Aleonysh [2.5K]

Answer:

9. Force is required to change an object velocity.Force is equal to mass times acceleration.

10.  Force acting on object are paired with equal and opposite forces

Step-by-step explanation:

9.

Newton's 2nd law states that force is a product of mass and acceleration.In this case, the force of friction is causing deceleration of the ball.This is an example of rolling friction.Acceleration of the ball depends directly on this friction but indirectly on its mass.

10.

From Newton's 3rd Law ,for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.The astronaut throwing the ball will experience the effect of an external force againts his own which is equal  and  in the opposite direction to the force she applied.This is why the astronaut moves backward but slower.

3 0
3 years ago
Complete the identity
spin [16.1K]

Answer: cos(\pi-x)=-cos(x)

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to apply the following identity:

cos(A - B) = cos A*cos B + sinA*sin B

Then, applying this, you know that for cos(\pi-x):

cos(\pi-x)=cos(\pi)*cos(x)+sin(\pi)*sin(x)

We need to remember that:

cos(\pi)=-1 and sin(\pi)=0

Therefore, we need to substitute these values into cos(\pi-x)=cos(\pi)*cos(x)+sin(\pi)*sin(x).

Then, you get:

cos(\pi-x)=(-1)*cos(x)+0*sin(x)

cos(\pi-x)=-1cos(x)+0

cos(\pi-x)=-cos(x)

8 0
3 years ago
Classify this relation as direct, inverse, or neither:
Charra [1.4K]

Answer:

b option im not sure but

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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