You use pemdas and they both equal to 77. So yes they are equivalent.

Mathematics

1 answer:

spayn [35]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

yes if u use Pemdas and both sides of the equation have the same answer, they both are equivalent.

Good job!

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PLEASE HELP!!!!!

amid [387]

Answer:

Lauren is 19. Lauren's grandmother is 61.

Step-by-step explanation:

19 * 3 = 57

57 + 4 =61

19 + 61 = 80

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Diego said that the awnser to the question "How many groups of 5/6 are in 1?" Is 6/5 or 1 1/5.Do you agree with his statement? E

slamgirl [31]

Answer:

Diego is correct.

He has correctly divided 1 in groups of $\frac{5}{6}$ .

Step-by-step explanation:

The question 'How many groups of 5/6 are in 1?' means that we need to divided 1 into groups of $\\frac{5}{6}$ .

When we form groups from a given total, we divided the total by the size of the group.

If we are dividing $N$ number of people in groups of $x$ number of people, then the expression to find the number of groups formed can be given as:

⇒ $\frac{N}{x}$

For this question the data given is:

$N=1$

$x=\frac{5}{6}$

So, the number of groups formed can be given as:

⇒ $\frac{1}{\frac{5}{6}}$

When divisor is a fraction, then we multiply the reciprocal of the divisor with the dividend.

⇒ $1\times\frac{6}{5}$

⇒ $\frac{6}{5}$

In order to convert fraction to mixed number we will divide numerator with denominator and then write the quotient as whole number, remainder as numerator and the denominator remains as it is.

On dividing 6 by 5, the quotient =1 and remainder =1. Thus the mized number is:

⇒ $1\frac{1}{5}$