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3 years ago

6

Easy question for points 1/3 in decimal form ps I know the answer

2 answers:

valina [46]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

0.3333 (the three continues)

Step-by-step explanation:

If you put 1/3 or 1 divided by 3 in the calculator, then it'll show the decimal form of the fraction.

Akimi4 [234]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

0.333

Step-by-step explanation:

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If your data set does not include an outlier which measure of center, Mean or Median, is best to use to describe your data. Expl

VLD [36.1K]

When there isn't an outlier, the mean is the best measure of central tendency, because it gives you a more arithmetic answer of the true center since all numbers are included in the equation rather than at max 2 numbers in the middle of the list.

3 0

3 years ago

Which function has an inverse function?

daser333 [38]

Answer: Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

By definition, only those functions that are one to one have an inverse function.

A function is one by one if there are not two different input values, $x_1$ and $x_2$ , that have the same output value y

Note that the function $f(x)= \frac{|x+3|}{5}$ is not a one-to-one function

When x=2 $f(x)= \frac{|2+3|}{5}=1\ ,\ \ y=1$

When x=8 $f(x)= \frac{|-8+3|}{5}=1\ \ ,\ y=1$

Note that the function $f(x)= \frac{x^4}{7}+ 27$ is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 $f(x)= \frac{(1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}$

When x=-1 $f(x)= \frac{(-1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}$

Note that the function $f(x)= \frac{1}{x^2}$ is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 $f(x)= \frac{1}{(1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1$

When x=-1 $f(x)= \frac{1}{(-1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1$

Then the answer is the option B.

You can verify that The function $f (x) = x ^ 5-3$ is a one-to-one function and therefore its inverse is a function

5 0

2 years ago

Which would be the best sample for

vesna_86 [32]

B because it’s a random sample and it’s not biased

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

51 is 33 1/3 of what number?

nevsk [136]

Answer:

$\boxed{\frac{153}{100}\:\:Or\:\:1.53}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the number be $n$ .

Then,

$33\frac{1}{3} \tmes n=51$

This implies that;

$\frac{100}{3} n=51$

We multiply both sides by $\frac{3}{100}$ to obtain;

$\frac{3}{100} \times \frac{100}{3}n=\frac{3}{100} \times 51$

$\Rightarrow n=\frac{3}{100} \times 51$

$\Rightarrow n=\frac{153}{100}$

Or

$\Rightarrow n=1.53$

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Brums [2.3K]

I think I just had a stroke trying to read this

6 0

3 years ago