Answer: 36 sec
Step-by-step explanation:
Let
x------> distance the kitten runs before being caught by the puppy
Remember that
The speed is equal to divide the distance by the time
v=d/t
solve for t
t=d/v
so
equate the time
x/20=(180+x)/25
25x=20(180+x)
25x=3,600+20x
25x-20x=3,600
x=3,600/5=720 m
t=d/v=720/20=36 sec
or
t=(720+180)/25=900/25=36 sec
Answer:
I would have to say C.14
Step-by-step explanation:
Because if you are running the same exact emperiment with the same exact materials everytime then you should get the same outcome.
Hope this helps! : D
Answer:
1. 32
2. 24
3. 
4. 
5. 15
6. 
Step-by-step explanation:
1. 4÷ 
2. 6÷
3.
÷4=
4.
÷4=
5. 5÷
6.
÷5=
48 sets i believe since there are only 48 maximum of blue, green and yellow crayons therefore the 49th set would only contain a red crayons and a picture
The answer is 0.4%. The probability that a unit end in a rework can be calculated using the following equation:
P(rework)= P(defects found) * P(defect)
= .8 * .005
= .004
= 0.4%
Thank you for posting your question. Feel free to ask me more.