Answer:
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Step-by-step explanation:
hope this is correct!
Step-by-step explanation:
Area =0.5×base×height
Area= 0.5×5×3=7.5ft
Answer :
0.53
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the following :
Probability of female = probability of success on a single trial = 0.51
Number of babies = 80
Probability that more than half of the babies are female : p(X >80/2) = P(X > 40)
The problem can be solved using the binomial probability function :
P(X > 40) = [ p(X= 41) + p(X= 42) +.... +p(X= 80)]
In other to save computation time, we can use the binomial probability calculator
Hence ; P(X > 40) = 0.527 = 0.53
Answer:
We know that ,

So ,

we can add 2 pi to it since there will be no change in the value
Also,

Answer : Option B