Answer:
10%
Explanation:
Given that,
Interest at last year debt = 8%
Current year cost of debt = 25% higher
Firms paid for debt last year = 10%
Firms paid for debt in current year = 12.50%
Kd - cost of debt
Yield = Interest at last year debt × (1 + increase in cost of debt)
= 8% × (1 + 0.25)
= 8% × 1.25
= 10%
Kd = Yield (1 – T)
Kd = 10% (1 – 0)
= 10% (1)
= 10%
Therefore, after tax cost of debt would be 10%.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": Centralization of authority.
Explanation:
Centralization of authority takes place in companies where high-rank executives take most or all the decisions regarding the operations. Employees voice is not heard under this approach. Managers tend to implement this strategy when they pretend to minimize the percentage of mistakes incurred in the firm. The organization of the company tends to be bureaucratic.
Answer:
Variable overhead efficiency variance = $2,212unfavorable
Explanation:
variable overhead efficiency variance: Variable overhead efficiency variance aims to determine whether or not their exist savings or extra cost incurred on variable overhead as a result of workers being faster or slower that expected.
Since the variable overhead is charged using labour hours, any amount by which the actual labour hours differ from the standard allowable hours would result in a variance
Hours
5,400 units should have taken (5,400×3.8 hours) 20,520
but did take <u> 20,800</u>
Labour hours variance 280 unfavorable
Standard variable overhead rate × <u>$ 7.90</u> per hour
Variable overhead efficiency variance $2,212 unfavorable
Variable overhead efficiency variance = $2,212unfavorable
Answer:
SEO-friendly
Explanation:
Being SEO friendly is a quality that some web pages have that, due to their characteristics, are optimized from the SEO point of view, that is, they are easier to find and have a better web positioning.
These features cover different aspects from programming, through design, to the contents of the website, which get them to position themselves much better, with the increase in reputation, notoriety and presence on the network.
Answer:
a)Jada's basis for depreciation in the property is NIL.
b) Personal property that has no intrinsic value is called 'INTANGIBLE PROPERTY'.
Explanation:
Due to a decline in the property values over the past few years Jada has converted her personal residence to rental property and/or investment property which is a subject dealt within IAS 40 (Investment property).
According to IAS 40 an investment property is land or building held to earn rentals or for capital appreciation or both rather than use in the entity. IAS 40 requires to initially measure investment property at cost and subsequently may either measure at cost or fair value model. Fair value is normally established by prevailing market prices.
IAS 40 also mentions that if an asset is revalued to fair value the gain and loss should be recorded in statement of profit and loss and 'NO DEPRECIATION IS CHARGED ON THE ASSET AFTER THE FAIR VALUE MEASUREMENT'.
Therefore, following the instructions laid out by IAS 40 Jada's basis for depreciation in the property is NIL.
2) Personal property with no intrinsic value:
Personal property that has no intrinsic value is called 'INTANGIBLE PROPERTY'.
Lets first understand what intrinsic value is. Intrinsic value of an asset refers to the market led and/or market-driven price of that asset. This means those assets which don't have an active market for sale and purchase will have no intrinsic value. This is absolutely the case with intangible assets, because most intangible assets are unique and uncommon, such as, GOODWILL, PATENTS, COPYRIGHTS, therefore due to the uniqueness and exclusivity of such assets an active market place doesn't exist therefore it's hard to determine an intrinsic value for such kind of assets/ properties.
