Answer:
5.82%
Explanation:
NPER = 5
PMT = 80
FV = 1,070
PV = 1145
RATE = YTC
Yield to call = RATE(Nper, Pmt, -PV, FV)
Yield to call = RATE(5, 80, -1145, 1070)
Yield to call = 0.058207481
Yield to call = 5.82%
You would suggest that Saudi Arabia specializes in widgets and the United States in widgets.
In microeconomic theory, the opportunity fee of a particular interest choice is the lack of fee or gain that might be incurred with the aid of engaging in that hobby, relative to conducting an alternative activity providing a better return in price or gain.
“Possibility price is the cost of the next-quality alternative while a decision is made; it is what's given up,” explains Andrea Caceres-Santamaria, senior economic schooling professional at the St. Louis Fed, in a current page One Economics: money and overlooked possibilities.
Whilst economists talk over the “possibility value” of a useful resource, they mean the price of the subsequent-maximum-valued opportunity use of that aid. If, for example, you spend money and time going to a film, you cannot spend that point at domestic reading an ebook, and you can not spend the cash on something else.
Learn more about opportunity cost here: brainly.com/question/8846809
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Answer:
5.925%
Explanation:
For computing the cost of debt, first we have to determine the YTM by using the Rate formula that is shown in the attachment
Given that,
Present value = $1,050
Assuming figure - Future value or Face value = $1,000
PMT = 1,000 × 8% = $80
NPER = 20 year - 1 year = 19 year
= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after solving this,
1. The pretax cost of debt is 7.50%
2. And, the after tax cost of debt would be
= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)
= 7.50% × ( 1 - 0.21)
= 5.925%
Answer:
simple interest
Explanation:
Simple interest is the amount of money that an investment earns during 1 given period, it is calculated by multiplying the principal amount of the investment by the interest rate = $4,000 x 4% = $160
On the other hand, compound interest is interest that gains more interest by itself. This means that the interest gained during a given period, will gain more interest itself for the next period. It is calculated using the following formula = principal amount x (1 + interest rate)ⁿ, where n is the number of periods.
I'm not sure if I'm gong to be right on this, BUT, if he produces nails at $200, and he sells them at $350. Selling minus production cost is surplus. So it should be $150 per ton, hope this helps!