Answer:
4 minutes is the answer ok
For 1 play, the chance of gaining $8 is 4/38, while the chance of losing the $1 is 34/38. Therefore, the expected value is ($8)(4/38) + ($-1)(34/38) = $(-1/19). Over 50 plays, which are mutually independent of each other, we multiply the number of plays by the expected value to get $(-50/19) = $-2.63.
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Answer:
- 3 or 1 positive real zeros
- 0 negative real zeros
Step-by-step explanation:
The signs of the coefficients of the given terms are ...
+ - + -
There are three sign changes, so the number of positive real zeros is 3 or 1.
When odd-degree terms have their signs changed, the signs become ...
- - - -
There are no sign changes, hence no negative real zeros.
_____
A graph confirms this evaluation.
Answer:
C
Step-by-step explanation:
8*5=40 minutes
There is a total of 60 minutes.
So:
40/60 = 4/6 = 2/3
We need to find out how much 17 percent of 2,500 is, and then subtract that amount by 2,500. We can use proportions to use this. We can set up a fraction with x/2500 and another fraction with 17/100. Then, we need to cross multiply. This gives us 42,500. Next, we can divide by 100. This gives us 425. We know that they will save $425 if they decrease their energy use by 17%. We now need to subtract $425 from $2,500. This gives us $2,075. If the company is successful in decreasing their energy use by 17%, their bill would be $2,075.