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AlexFokin [52]
3 years ago
12

Which of the following is not one of the four types of analyses outlined in the text as a method for analyzing sales organizatio

n effectiveness?
a. cost analysis.
b. profitability analysis.
c. productivity analysis.
d. sales analysis.
e. market-share analysis.
Business
1 answer:
Readme [11.4K]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

e. market-share analysis.

Explanation:

e. market-share analysis because it is not only dependent on sales. Other factors are other industries markets total sales . It is not directly associated with analyzing sales organization effectiveness. Sales organization is responsible for selling and obtaining maximum profits. Optimum profits through least investments is their primary objective. Market share analysis is dependent on a particular period and the sales  during that period ,target company's sales and total market sales.

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After segmentation, the customer group selected by a firm is referred to as the target market.
love history [14]
True. 

Segmentation allows a firm to break the customer market by different categories and groups, such as demographics, market location, age, gender, and more. The segmentation process uses data to help the firm choose its target market to capture the most value. The customer group selected is then the target market for the firm. 
7 0
3 years ago
Accounting professionals can perform various services that provide assurance about the and of information given by one party to
Burka [1]

Answer:

It is true

Explanation:

Chartered Accountants most especially external auditors are trained to provide assurance services that will give credit and reliability to the financial information being presented to the users by the directors.

Their services include statutory audit and other related assurance services.

The report produced by a Chartered Accountant (e.g External Auditor) gives reasonable assurance to the shareholders of the company or any other external users.

8 0
3 years ago
Pension plan assets were $1,200 million at the beginning of the year and $1,252 million at the end of the year. At the end of th
FromTheMoon [43]

Answer: 4%

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that Pension plan assets were $1,200 million at the beginning of the year and $1,252 million at the end of the year and that at the end of the year, retiree benefits paid by the trustee were $28 million and cash invested in the pension fund was $32 million.

Based on the above scenario, the percentage rate of return on plan assets goes thus:

Opening balance of plan assets 1200

Add:- Actual return = 48

Add:- contributions = 32

Less :- retiree benefits = -28

Closing balance of plan assets = 1252

It should be noted that the actual return is the balancing figure which is calculated as:

= 1252 + 28 - 1200 - 32

= 48

The percentage rate of return on plan assets will now be:

= 48/1200

=0.04

= 4%

4 0
3 years ago
Mark currently has a balance of $973.70 in an account he has held for 17 years. He opened the account with an initial deposit of
IrinaK [193]

Answer:

Simple interest= $273.7

Explanation:

<em>Simple interest is the interest on earned on the principal amount invested only. Kindly note that under this system, only the principal amount invested would earn interest over the course of the investment period</em>

<em> Simple interest is calculated as follows:</em>

Simple interest = Principal × Rate × Time

or

Simple interest = Future sum - Principal amount invested

DATA

Future sum- $973.70

Principal amount invested-700

Simple interest = 973.70 - 700=273.7

Simple interest= $273.7

5 0
3 years ago
Keenan Industries has a bond outstanding with 15 years to maturity, an 8.25% nominal coupon, semiannual payments, and a $1,000 p
ycow [4]

Answer:

6.52%

Explanation:

For computing the nominal yield to call, first we have to find out the present value by applying the present value formula which is shown in the attachment below:

Future value = $1,000

Rate of interest = 6.50% ÷ 2 = 3.25%

NPER = 15 years  × 2 = 30 years

PMT = $1,000 × 8.25% ÷ 2  = $41.25

The formula is shown below:

= -PV(Rate;NPER;PMT;FV;type)

So, after solving this, the present value is $1,166.09

Now to determine the yield to call we use the RATE formula that is shown in the attachment below:

Present value = $1,166.09

Future value or Face value = $1,120

PMT = $1,000 × 8.25% ÷ 2  = $41.25

NPER = 6 years × 2 = 12 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after solving this, the bond nominal yield to call is

= 3.26% × 2 years

= 6.52%

8 0
3 years ago
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