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damaskus [11]
3 years ago
14

It is not possible to prove one pair of triangles congruent and then use their congruent corresponding parts to prove another pa

ir congruent. True or false
Mathematics
2 answers:
Digiron [165]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

TRUE

Step-by-step explanation:

Go to khan academy. It will explain it well.

borishaifa [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

true

The wording does not quite mean anything,

but what I think was meant to ask is

"if we use some parts of two triangles to prove they are congruent,

can we then use that to prove that

a pair of corresponding parts not used before are congruent?"

The answer is

Yes, of course,

Corresponding Parts of Congruent Triangles are Congruent,

which teachers usually abbreviate as CPCTC.

For example, if we find that

side AB is congruent with side DE,

side BC is congruent with side EF, and

angle ABC is congruent with angle DEF,

we can prove that triangles ABC and DEF are congruent

by Side-Angle-Side (SAS) congruence.

We then, by CPCTC, can conclude that other pairs of corresponding parts are congruent:

side AB is congruent with side DE,

angle BCA is congruent with angle EFD, and

angle CAB is congruent with angle FDE.

It was possible (by CPCTC) to prove those last 3 congruence statements,

after proving the triangles congruent.

The expected answer is FALSE.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Given the triangle below, what is m triangleA, rounded to the nearest tenth?
Neko [114]

Answer:

The correct answer is option A   17.8°

Step-by-step explanation:

From the figure attached with this answer,

We can see a perpendicular from B to side AC

<u>To find BD</u>

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Therefore the sides are in the ratio 1 :√3 : 2

Here BC = 11

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<u>To find the value of  m<A</u>

We have

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AB = 18 and BD = 11/2

Sin A = BD/AB =(11/2)/18 = 11/36 = 0.3055

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