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nirvana33 [79]
3 years ago
8

Helps asap please help

Mathematics
2 answers:
mash [69]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Yes,

2 and 5

Step-by-step explanation:

A function has an inverse if and only if it is one to one.

To tell if this equation is a function, and to tell if it is one to one, we must do the vertical line test, and the horizontal line test.

It passes the vertical line test and the horizontal line test.

Therefore it has an inverse.

To get the inverse of this equation, we have to know that inverses are reflections over Y = X. So if we plot that line, we can have an idea of where the inverse would be.

f^-1 (0) = 2

f^-1 (3) = 5

The easiest way to do this... is to know that the inverse equation just flips all the coordinates.

(0,1) -> (1,0)

So... if they give you the Y intercept the (0 and the 3) go look at where the line crosses X! I mean, why not? They gave you half the inverse coordinate point an

Novosadov [1.4K]3 years ago
5 0
Yes because the line is curved
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