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Zanzabum
3 years ago
5

Problem 13-13 A mail-order house uses 18,000 boxes a year. Carrying costs are 60 cents per box a year, and ordering costs are $9

6. The following price schedule applies. Number of Boxes Price per Box 1,000 to 1,999 $1.25 2,000 to 4,999 1.20 5,000 to 9,999 1.15 10,000 or more 1.10 a. Determine the optimal order quantity. (Round your intermediate calculations to 2 decimal places and final answer to the nearest whole number.) Optimal order quantity boxes b. Determine the number of orders per year. (Round your answer to 1 decimal place.) Number of order per year
Business
1 answer:
uranmaximum [27]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

A. 5,000 boxes per order

B. 3.6 orders per yr

Explanation:

See attached file

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Eleanor and Darnell need to decide which one of them will take time off from work to complete the rather urgent task of shearing
Naily [24]

Answer:

Eleanor has the lowest opportunity cost of completing the task. Opportunity cost of $80.

Explanation:

opportunity cost calculations

Eleanor; she earns $160 per hour and can complete the task in 30 minutes therefore we convert the minutes to hours 30/60 = 0.5hours

$160 *0.5hours = $80

Darnell ; he earns $25 per hour and it will take him 5 hours to complete the task , his opportunity cost is $25 *5 =$125.

5 0
3 years ago
What is the theory that tax cuts can raise supply called
DaniilM [7]
The theory that tax cuts can raise supply is called "supply side economics" or "trickle down economics." These policies were strongly supported by the Reagan Administration in the United States during the 1980s in the hopes of promoting economic growth. The theory functions that the cutting of taxes will help to promote economic growth and development. 
8 0
3 years ago
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The role of the financial manager is closely related to three main cash-related activities: Financing Investing Operating.
dem82 [27]

Answer:

b. False

Explanation:

The role of financial manager has different perspectives, ensuring that the required funding for positive NPV projects  is available such that the firm can increase its shareholders' wealth by investing in profitable investment opportunities.

Investing means when the funds are made available , the manager must priotize those projects with higher opportunities over those with lower growth opportunities.

Lastly, the financial manager is responsible for dividend decisions, what fraction of earnings should be paid out to shareholders as dividends)not operating decisions)

8 0
3 years ago
Kahle Company has two support departments: Purchasing and Payroll. The Purchasing Department expense is $500,000 to process 50,0
allsm [11]

Answer: $15600

Explanation:

To calculate the amount of the Payroll Department's cost that is allocated to the Assembly Department goes thus:

First we need to calculate the allocation rate which will be:

= $300,000/25,000

= $12.

Then, the departmental cost will be:

= Payroll checks × Allocation rate

= 1,300 × $12

= $15,600.

Therefore, the amount of the Payroll Department's cost that is allocated to the Assembly Department is $15600.

3 0
3 years ago
1 . Perpetuities Perpetuities are also called annuities with an extended or unlimited life. Based on your understanding of perpe
Dmitrij [34]

Answer:

(A) A perpetuity is a stream of regularly timed, equal cash flows that continues forever

(B) The value of a perpetuity is equal to the sum of the present value of its expected future cash flows

the bank offers 1.6%

in the alternative scenario it offers 1.067%

Explanation:

(A) A perpetuity is a stream of regularly timed, equal cash flows that continues forever

The perpetuity is an annuity in which time tends to infinity, to be qualified as an annuity the cash payment must be regular.

(B) The value of a perpetuity is equal to the sum of the present value of its expected future cash flows

As state above the perpetuinty is an annuity, the annuities return the present value of the expcted future cash flow.

Given the annuity formula

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

if times tends to infinity then the expression:

\lim_{n \to \infty} (1+r)^{-n} = 1

Nexti n the annuity formula we got:

C \times \frac{1-1 }{rate}= PV\\

So we end up with C / rate = PV

which s the perpetuity formula

800/50000 = 0.016       = 1.6%

800/75000 = 0.0106667 = 1.067%

7 0
3 years ago
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