A: 14/16 that is the answer
Step-by-step explanation:
"The probability of drawing a red ace followed by another ace of any color without replacement."
There are 4 aces total, 2 of which are red. After the first red ace is drawn, there will be 3 aces left. So the probability is:
P = (2/52) (3/51)
P = 1/442
"The probability of drawing a king followed by a queen with replacement."
There are 4 kings and 4 queens. So the probability is:
P = (4/52) (4/52)
P = 1/169
"The probability of drawing a 3 or a 5 followed by a 4 or a 6 with replacement."
There are 8 cards that are either 3 or 5, and 8 cards that are either 4 or 6. So the probability is:
P = (8/52) (8/52)
P = 4/169
"The probability of drawing a spade followed by a jack of any color with replacement."
There are 13 spades, and 4 jacks. So the probability is:
P = (13/52) (4/52)
P = 1/52
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
a = 
- 
= 
← as a single fraction
Thus
= 
= 
→ A
There will be one solution. To solve that:
1. Get the y alone by switching the places.
6x+y=2 > y=2-6x
-18x+3y=12 > 3y=12-18x > Then divide 3 on each number > y=4-6x
After doing that, you can solve this in graphing or algebra way.
Ima do the algebra way:
SO we have 2 system of equations. Now pick one equestion.
I will pick, y=2-6x. Now Ima replace the Y with the other equation y=4-6x >
4-6x=2-6x.
Now solve. And get > 0 aka Infinite Solution.
The correct answer is 2– it is NOT a possible value for correlation coefficient (r) because the value of “r” must always be between +1 and –1.
