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Evgesh-ka [11]
3 years ago
13

g Brandon and Jane Forte file a joint tax return and decide to itemize their deductions. The Fortes' income for the year consist

s of $119,000 in salary, $500 interest income, $1,000 nonqualifying dividends, and $500 long-term capital gains. The Fortes' expenses for the year consist of $2,500 in investment interest expense and $800 in tax preparation fees. Assuming that the Fortes' marginal tax rate is 32 percent and they make no special elections, what is the amount of investment interest expense deduction for the year
Business
1 answer:
murzikaleks [220]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$1,500

Explanation:

Investment interest expenses = Interest Income + Non qualifying dividends

Investment interest expenses = $500 + $1,000

Investment interest expenses = $1,500  

$1,500 < $2,500 (Investment interest expenses)

The long term capital gains are not considered in investment income because this income is taxed at a preferential rate.  Hence, the Investment interest expenses deduction for the year is $1,500.

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A firm's current profits are $400,000. These profits are expected to grow indefinitely at a constant annual rate of 4 percent. I
Valentin [98]

Answer:

A. $21,200,000

B. $20,800,000

Explanation:

A. Calculation to determine The instant before it pays out current profits as dividends

Value of the firm =[(Current profits) × (1 +Opportunity cost of funds)} ÷ (Opportunity cost of funds - Constant growth annual rate)

Let plug in the formula

Value of the firm= [($400,000) × (1 + 0.06)]÷ (0.06 - 0.04)

Value of the firm= [($400,000) × (1.06)]÷0.02

Value of the firm= $424,000 ÷ 0.02

Value of the firm= $21,200,000

Therefore The instant before it pays out current profits as dividends will be $21,200,000

B. Calculation to determine The instant after it pays out current profits as dividends

Using this formula

Value of the firm =[(Current profits) × (1 +Constant growth annual rate)} ÷ (Opportunity cost of funds - Constant growth annual rate)

Let plug in the formula

Value of the firm= [($400,000) × (1 + 0.04)] ÷ (0.06 - 0.04)

Value of the firm= [($400,000) × (1.04)] ÷ (0.06 - 0.04)

Value of the firm= $416,000 ÷ 0.02

Value of the firm= $20,800,000

Therefore The instant after it pays out current profits as dividends will be $20,800,000

3 0
3 years ago
Which is an organizational unit that is useful for collecting and aggregating similar data on separate forms?
VLD [36.1K]

Answer:

a.subforms

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Five hundred units of good x are currently bought and sold. The marginal buyer is willing to pay $40 for the 500th unit, and the
dimaraw [331]

Answer:

D : All options are correct

Explanation:

- The marginal buyer is the essence of demand curve while marginal seller is essence of supply curve.

- @ Q = 500 units,    Selling Price is set at SP = $35

- @ Q = 500 units,    Buying Price is set at BP = $40

- Since, SP ≠ BP our equilibrium price would be $ 37.5 assuming the price elasticity of demand and supply are equal. In any case the equilibrium price would lie in between [ 35 , 40 ] such that to prevent a shortage of units in near future.

- Moreover, if the seller decides to sell at price $35 then he must sell goods greater than 500 units to reach the equilibrium profits. However, it could also lead to excess of units or surplus.

- We see that from selling the goods at SP = $35 while the buyer is willing to pay BP = $40 for 500 goods, the seller would be under-profiting and would be earning $5*500 = $2,500 less than he would at equilibrium price of $40 and selling units greater than 500. Hence, 500 goods is not an efficient quantity of goods.

6 0
3 years ago
During March, Pendergraph Corporation incurred $65,000 of actual Manufacturing Overhead costs. During the same period, the Manuf
Yanka [14]

Answer: Credit to manufacturing overhead of $67000.

Explanation:

The journal entry to record the application of Manufacturing Overhead to Work in Process would be:

Debit Work in Progress $67000

Credit Manufacturing overhead $67000.

( To record the application of manufacturing overhead to work in process).

5 0
3 years ago
The management of Penfold Corporation is considering the purchase of a machine that would cost $270,000, would last for 5 years,
Lorico [155]

Answer:

The correct answer is B.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Initial investment= $270,000

Cash flow= $60,000

Number of years= 5

Discount rate= 12%

<u>To calculate the net present value (NPV), we need to use the following formula:</u>

NPV= -Io + ∑[Cf/(1+i)^n]

∑[Cf/(1+i)^n]:

Cf1= 60,000/1.12= 53,571.43

Cf2= 60,000/1.12^2= 47,831.63

.....

Cf5= 60,000/1.12^5= 34,045.61

∑[Cf/(1+i)^n]= 216,286.57

<u>Now, the NPV:</u>

NPV= -270,000 + 216,286.57

NPV= -53,713.43

5 0
3 years ago
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