Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
There are simply 5 possible values in the given set. Out of these, only one of these is the number 1. Therefore, the probability a 1 is drawn (P(1)) is
.
100,000 equals 10 to the power of 5, hope helps.
To find what 86% of 40 is, first convert 86% to a decimal, then multiply that decimal by 40.
86% = 0.86
0.86 • 40 = 34.4
So 86% of 40 is 34.4.
Answer:
x - 11 = 15
Step-by-step explanation:
x is rpthe unknown number