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Rama09 [41]
3 years ago
9

Minstrel Manufacturing uses a job order costing system. During one month, Minstrel purchased $206,000 of raw materials on credit

; issued materials to production of $203,000 of which $22,000 were indirect. Minstrel incurred a factory payroll of $158,000, of which $32,000 was indirect labor. Minstrel uses a predetermined overhead application rate of 150% of direct labor cost. If Minstrel incurred total overhead costs of $203,000 during the month, compute the amount of under- or overapplied overhead
Business
1 answer:
neonofarm [45]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$14,000 under applied

Explanation:

Given that

Material production = $203,000

Application rate = 150%

The computation of amount of overhead is shown below:-

Overhead = Material production × Application rate

= $203,000 - ($126,000 × 1.5)

= $203,000 - $189,000

= $14,000 under applied

Therefore, for computing the overhead we simply multiply the material production with application rate percentage.

You might be interested in
You have $130,000 to invest in a portfolio containing Stock X and Stock Y. Your goal is to create a portfolio that has an expect
Finger [1]

Answer:

Let X be the amount invested in stock A

Let 1-X be the amount invested in stock B

Expected rate = (Required rate of X* X) + (Required ratebof Y * (1-X))

0.146 = (0.128 * X) + (0.078 * (1-X))

0.146 = 0.128X + 0.078 -  0.078X

0.146 - 0.078 = 0.128X - 0.078X

X = 0.068/0.05

X = 1.36

Amount to be invested in Stick X = $130,000 * 1.36

= $176,000

Amount to be invested in Stock Y = (1-X) * Available amount

= (1-1.36) * $130,000

= $46,800

Therefore, the amount to be invested in Stick Y = -$46,800

Calculation of the portfolio beta

bp = w1b1 + w2b2 + ........ + wnbn

bp = (1.36*1.3) + ((-0.36) * 1.05)

bp = 1.768 - 0.378

bp = 1.29

Therefore, the portfolio beta is 1.39

7 0
3 years ago
Waterway Industries purchased a depreciable asset for $837300 on January 1, 2018. The estimated salvage value is $84000, and the
murzikaleks [220]

Answer:

$222,100

Explanation:

Cost = $837,300

Residual value = $84,000  

Useful life = 9 years  

Now,  

Annual straight line depreciation = \frac{Cost-Residual Value}{Useful life}  

Annual straight line depreciation = \frac{837,300 - 84,000}{9}  

Annual straight line depreciation = \frac{753,300}{9}  

Annual straight line depreciation = $83,700

Accumulated depreciation for three years i.e., 2018, 2019 and 2020 would be:

Accumulated depreciation = 3 × $83,700

Accumulated depreciation = $251,100

Book value (at the end of year 2020) = Cost - Accumulated depreciation  

Book value (at the end of year 2020) = $837,300 - $251,100

Book value (at the end of year 2020) = $586,200

Revised useful life = 5 years

No. years asset has been used = 3 years

Remaining useful life = 2 years

Revised salvage value = $142,000

Therefore, depreciation expense for the remaining three year would be:

Revised depreciation expense = \frac{Book value at the end of 2020 - Revised residual Value}{Remaining useful life}  

Revised depreciation expense = \frac{586,200 - 142,000}{2}  

Revised depreciation expense = \frac{444,200}{2}

Revised depreciation expense = $222,100

5 0
3 years ago
The type of engine that contains 2 camshafts mounted in its cylinder head is called a/an A. overhead camshaft engine. B. push ro
vampirchik [111]
C.


Hope this help! :3
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
g A foreign factory has offered to supply with ready-made baskets for a price of $12 per basket. Assume that fixed costs are una
cluponka [151]

Answer:

The answer is "$5500".

Explanation:

Analysis Differential:  

                                             Make                            Buy

Cost of variable                        800\times 7 \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \  \ \ \ \ \ \ = 5600  

Fixed- cost                             16000\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 16000

Purchasing cost                                                    800\times 12\ = 9600

Cost of opportunity            \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \  \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 9500  

Total relevant cost                    31100 \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \  \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \  25600

Increasing operating income = 31100-25600 = 5500

4 0
3 years ago
The Harrison Company is closely held and, therefore, cannot generate reliable inputs with which to use the CAPM method for estim
Artyom0805 [142]

Answer:

the formula used to calculate the cost of equity (required rate of return) based on the bond yield plus risk premium is fairly simple:

cost of equity (Re) = yield of debt (bonds) + firm's risk premium = 11.52% + 3.55% = 15.07%

I'm not sure if the question was copied correctly or not, so I looked for similar questions and it included different numbers.

<em>The Harrison Company is closely held and, therefore, cannot generate reliable inputs with which to use the CAPM method for estimating a company's cost of internal equity. Harrison's bonds yield 10.28%, and the firm's analysts estimate that the firm's risk premium on its stock over its bonds is 4.95%. Based on the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach, Harrison's cost of Internal equity is: = 10.28% + 4.95% = 15.23%</em>

<em>Another question: </em>

<em>The Kennedy Company is closely held and, therefore, cannot generate reliable inputs with which to use the CAPM method for estimating a company's cost of internal equity. Kennedy's bonds yield 11.52%, and the firm's analysts estimate that the firm's risk premium on its stock over its bonds is 4.95%. Based on the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach, Kennedy's cost of internal equity is: = 11.52% + 4.95% = 16.47%</em>

5 0
3 years ago
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