Answer: $146,000
Explanation: $146,000
Sales = (Firms estimates x low-priced line) - (Higer-Priced line x Average Price)
(7,000 × $59) + (-3,000 × $89) = $146,000
Answer:
The journal entries are shown below:
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the journal entries for the given data are as follows:
(1). Jun.30 Bad Debt expense A/c Dr $12,800
To Allowance for Doubtful A/c $12,800
(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)
(2). July Allowance for Doubtful A/c Dr $6,400
To Accounts Receivable A/c $6,400
(Being the customer balance written off is recorded)
Answer:
The aftertax salvage value of the machine is D) $10,134
Explanation:
Hi. first, we need to find out the book value of the machine at the selling date, that is 3 years from now, and the book value is as follows.

Since taxes are based on the profit you make by selling something, our profit is:

Therefore, our taxes are:

So, the after tax salvage value of the machine is the money you received on the sale minus the taxes you have to pay, that is:
Salvage Value of the Machine = $12,000 - $1,866?= $10,134
That is option D)
Best of luck.
<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>
As the utility function is concave in shape, so person is risk averse. Thus, he will not accept the gamvle.
The difference between utility at point A&C = 70 minus 65 = $5, is less than a the difference between A&B = 65 minus 55 = $10
<u>MCQ:
</u>
Answer is option a&d - risk averse people fear a lot for losing money, thus they overestimate the probability of loss
Since, shape of utility function is concave, hence the double derivative of utility with respect to wealth is negative, so utility falls at an decreasing rate , as wealth increases
Answer:
Additional paid in capital in excess of par value is any amount of money received through issuing stocks at a higher value than par:
additional paid in capital = ($47 - $5) x 12,000 stocks = $42 x 1,200 = $504,000
Additional paid in capital does not affect retained earnings, so retained earnings should remain unchanged.