Step-by-step explanation:
So first of all we plug in 1 into f(x) and the result of that into g(x).
f(1)=(1)^2-3(1)+5
=1-3+5
=3
g(3)=(3)(22)-2(3)
=66-6
=60
Answer:
1/32768
Step-by-step explanation:
We have 5 digit pin code plots and 8 choices per slot. Because repetition is allowed (1 digit can have 8 choices) so we multiply out the number of choices per slot
. Hence:
8*8*8*8*8 =
So there are 32768 different combination.
But correct guess on the first try is just only 1 time, so its' probability:
1/32768
48-4=44,in the left
6×7=42,in the right
44>42,so > is the answer