Answer:
$81,000
Explanation:
Segment margin is derived by deducting all expenses that are directly traceable to the segment and it does not include corporate common expenses.
Particulars Amount
Contribution $132,000 [33,000*(8-4)]
Less: Direct fixed cost <u>($51,000)</u>
Segment Margin <u>$81,000</u>
So, Carter's segment margin for the West Division is $81,000.
Answer:
B) 574,000
Explanation:
Equipment book of Paar value on december 31/14 of $294,000.-
Add Kimmels equipment book value on december 31/14 of $190,00
Add original acquisition-date allocation to Kimmel´s equipment of ($400,000 - $272,000) = $128,000
Less Amortization of alloction ($128,000 / 10 years for 3 years) = (38,400)
Eqcuals consolidated equipment of $574,000
Answer: Option (D) is correct.
Explanation:
If the potential GDP is 70 and economy is in recession. Potential GDP is the GDP of an economy which can be achieved with the best utilization of economy's resources.
The amount of the shortfall in planned aggregate expenditure is equal to the vertical distance between the 45 degree line and the AE = Y, at a level of potential real GDP.
This is also shown by an arrow in the diagram.
<span>Money is not the only measure of success and not everything is transactional. A producer may choose to produce for many reasons. Among them, working with exceptional talent as well as gaining experience and getting street creds.</span>
Answer:
The correct answer is D. 10.00%
Explanation:
To get internal rate of return we use excel or a spreadsheet. See document attached.
Make the cash flow to solve this problem. At moment 0 we have the investment cost , in this case $1.475.668 (negative) From period 1 to period 5, we have different incomes o benefits. Salvage value is 1.615.205, we are going to get it at moment 5 (positive).
Then, we calculate the Net cash flow that is the difference between benefits and cost.
We use all the result (positive and negative) in Net cash flow to get the IRR.
Net Present Value (NPV) 768907
Internal Rate of Return (IRR) 10,00%
