Answer:
5.657%
Explanation:
Data provided:
Face value = $1,000
Current market price = $640
Time of maturity, t = 8 year
Now,
the compounding formula is given as:
Face value = Current amount × 
where,
r is the rate i.e pretax rate of debt
n is the number of times the interest is compounded i.e for semiannual n = 2
thus, on substituting the values, we get
$ 1,000= $ 640 × 
or
1.5625 = 
or
= 1.0282
or
r = 0.05657
or
pretax cost of debt = 0.05657 × 100% = 5.657%
Identifying and removing employment practices which are working against minority applicants and employees is the affirmative action strategies would involve an employer changing the company policy or the way an organization is decorated.
Affirmative action includes a set of policies and practices within a government or organization which seeks to include particular groups based on their race, gender, sexuality, or nationality.
In no way does affirmative action require an employer to hire an unqualified minority over a qualified non minority, which is important to note. Thus, affirmative actions include outreach efforts, training programs, and other positive steps.
Hence, affirmative action gives a certain advantage to the minority groups in the recruitment process.
To learn more about affirmative action here:
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Answer:
B. task-oriented leadership style .
Explanation:
Task-oriented leadership style -
It refers to the type of leader, who only target on the goal or project .
This type of leader is referred to as the task - oriented leadership style .
As from the very term, the person is only inclined towards his or her task
There type of leaders assign the tasks very clearly and making sure all the works are done on time with proper efficiency and accuracy .
These leader are very consult about the deadline and hence define all the task to get over before the deadline .
There type of leaders are very well organised and clear about the task .
Hence, from the given scenario of the question,
The correct answer is B. task-oriented leadership style.
Answer:
1. $2.5 million
2. $0
Explanation:
1. Since the book value is more than the generated future cash flows so book value cannot be recovered. In this case, the generated future cash flows are ignored
In this scenario, we compare the values between book value and the fair value of machinery, the difference would be the loss on impairment of the asset
In mathematically,
= Book value - fair value
= $6.5 million - $4.0 million
= $2.5 million
2. In this case, the sum of future cash flows is exceeded than the book value. So, no impairment loss would be recognized i.e zero amount
Answer:
Debit Insurance Expense, $2,400; credit Prepaid Insurance, $2,400.
Explanation:
The journal entry is given below
Insurance expense A/c Dr $2,400
To Prepaid Insurance $2,400
(Being insurance expense is recorded)
The computation is shown below:
= Insurance premium ÷ number of months × required months
= $4,800 ÷ 4 months × 2 months
= $2,400 months
The 2 months is taken from November 1 to December 31
