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katen-ka-za [31]

2 years ago

8

(TCO C) Oceanside bank converts a dollar of equity into 10 cents of net income and has $9.50 in assets per dollar of equity capi

tal. Oceanside also has a profit margin of 15%. What is Oceanside’s AU ratio? Group of answer choices 1.05% 3.55% 5.56% 6.45% 7.02%

1 answer:

ZanzabumX [31]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

7.02%

Explanation:

(0.10/9.5)/0.15 = 7.02%

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Overhead Applied to Jobs, Departmental Overhead Rates Xania Inc. uses a normal job-order costing system. Currently, a plantwide

sveta [45]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Department A Department B

Overhead costs (expected) $120,000 $80,000

Normal activity (machine hours) 16,000 5,800

A) To calculate the plantwide overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= (120,000 + 80,000) / (16,000 + 5,800)= $9.17 per machine hour

B) We need to use the same formula, but for each department:

Department A:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 120,000/16,000= $7.5 per machine hour

Department B:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 80,000/5,800= $13.79 per machine hour

7 0

3 years ago

Afirm has production function q=10"(L^0.5)*(K^0.5), where "L"0.5" means "L raised to the 0.5 power," and the same applies to the

Amanda [17]

Answer:

(A) 15 × p

(B) $225\times p{^2}$

(C) $P\times 5\times k^{0.5}$

Explanation:

(B) direct= demand function of labor will be,

Q: f(w),

where Q is labor demand quantity and is function of wage

K=9 constant, then production function changes to,

$=30L^{0.5}$

Marginal product of labor:

$= 15L^{-0.5}$

Marginal revenue product or value of marginal product:

$=15p\times L^{- 0.5}$

This is showing what revenue a firm will generate due to hiring one additional unit of labor.

So firm will keep hiring until the revenue the additional labor is generating is equal to its hiring cost or wage.

So, putting MRP or VMP to wage:

$P\times15\times L^{-0.5}=W$

By solving,

$\frac{(225\times p^{2})}{W^{2}}=L$

And the multiplicative term is $225\times p{^2}$

(A) Inverse demand function of labor will be,

W: f(Q)

where W is wage rate and demand function of labor demanded quantity.

As previously solved,

$P\times15 \times L^{0.5}=W$

and the multiplicative constant term is 15 × p.

(c) In long run capital will also variate, so production function will be,

$=10L^{0.5}\times k{^0.5}$

$MP=\frac{(5\times k^{0.5})}{L^{0.5}}$

$VMP=\frac{P(5\times k^{0.5})}{L^{0.5}}$

( p is market price of good that firm is producing using labor)

putting it equal to Wage)

$W=\frac{(5\times k^{0.5})}{L^{0.5}}$

and the constant term is $P\times 5\times k^{0.5}$ .

Note:

I did a) second place and b) on first . I already put the serial alphabet on the start of the answer.

8 0

3 years ago

Meatpackers, Inc., enters into a contract with Nevada Ranch for the delivery of a certain number of beef cattle on a set schedul

frez [133]

Answer:

Provide the buyer with funds for a foreseeable loss beyond the contract

Explanation:

Consequential damages in contracts is different from incidental or actual damages because it causes a loss that impacts the business of the other party beyond the contract horizon, when the opposite party fails to fulfill his side of the contractual obligations.

In the scenario, Nevada's failure to deliver within agreed contractual timing is not just delaying the time of Meatpackers but as a consequence, is also causing them loss in money terms which will impact their business beyond the contract horizon.

Hence an award of consequential damages to Meatpackers will provide the buyer with funds for a foreseeable loss beyond the contract.

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Prepare a 2019 individual tax return using the following fact pattern. Compute net tax payable or refund due for Alice and Bruce

Lana71 [14]

Answer:

Oof thats a long question.

Explanation:

4 0

2 years ago

Compute and select the correct common-size percent for each account title.Total Assets is $700,000 Accounts Payable is $75,000 B

Arisa [49]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation for each corrected common-size percent for each account is shown below:

Particulars Amount Percentage

Total assets $700,000 100%

Accounts payable $75,000 10.71%

($75,000 ÷ $700,000)

Bonds payable $225,000 32.14%

($225,000 ÷ $700,000)

Common stock $300,000 42.86%

($300,000 ÷ $700,000)

Retained earnings $100,000 14.29%

($100,000 ÷ $700,000)

Therefore each one of assetm liabilities and stockholder equity is presented as a percentage of total assets and the same is to be considered

3 0

2 years ago