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Artist 52 [7]
4 years ago
11

***I NEED HELP ASAP*** ***Please show all the steps*** ***I will mark brainliest***

Mathematics
1 answer:
mixer [17]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

First on is 0.75

Second is 22/52 (not sure about this one though)

Step-by-step explanation:

For the first one:

P(aUb) = p(a) + p(b) - p(a^b)

0.6 = 0.4 + 0.5 - p(a^b)

p(a^b) = 0.3

P(a/b)= p(a^b)/p(a)

P(a/b)= 0.3/0.4

P(a/b)= 0.75

For the second one:

Total of the cards are 52

Diamonds are 13 out of that 52

Face cards are 12 out of that 52

Diamond OR face cards means p(aUb)

And that equals p(a)+p(b)-p(a^b)

p(a^b) means the intersection between the two, there are three common cards between diamonds and face cards, so p(a^b)=3

13/52 + 12/52 - 3/52= 22/52

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3 years ago
5. A company sells small, colored binder clips in packages of 20 and offers a money-back guarantee if two or more of the clips a
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Answer:

a) Binomial.

b) n=20, p=0.01, k≥2

The probability hat a package sold will be refunded is P=0.0169.

Step-by-step explanation:

a) We know that

  • the defective probability is constant and independent.
  • the sample size is bigger than one subject.

The most appropiate distribution to represent this random variable is the binomial.

b) The parameters are:

  • Sample size (amount of clips in the package): n=20
  • Probability of defective clips: p=0.01.
  • number of defective clips that trigger the money-back guarantee: k≥2

The probability of the package being refunded can be calculated as:

P(x\geq2)=1-(P(x=0)+P(x=1))\\\\\\P(x=k) = \dbinom{n}{k} p^{k}q^{n-k}\\\\\\P(x=0) = \dbinom{20}{0} p^{0}q^{20}=1*1*0.8179=0.8179\\\\\\P(x=1) = \dbinom{20}{1} p^{1}q^{19}=20*0.01*0.8262=0.1652\\\\\\P(x\geq2)=1-(0.8179+0.1652)=1-0.9831=0.0169

6 0
4 years ago
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