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leva [86]
3 years ago
10

Goodwill is: Multiple Choice Amortized over the greater of its estimated life or 40 years. The excess of the fair value of a bus

iness over the fair value of all net identifiable assets. None of these answer choices are correct. Only recorded by the seller of a business.
Business
1 answer:
Svet_ta [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Goodwill is:

The excess of the fair value of a business over the fair value of all net identifiable assets.

Explanation:

This definition of Goodwill implies that it is usually acquired by the purchaser of another business, when it pays a price higher than the fair market value of the other company's net assets.  It is not a physical asset like property, plant, and equipment, but intangible.

Goodwill arises from a company's good reputation, loyal customers or clientele base, brand identity, talented workforce, and proprietary technology.

Goodwill does not have a definite life and under US GAAP and IFRS standards.  Therefore, it is not amortized like other intangible assets but is evaluated for impairment every year.

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Delayed product delivery is less of an issue when compared to delivering a faulty product, which can potentially cause harm. Thi
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

A) high magnitude of consequences.

Explanation:

Delayed product delivery is less of an issue when compared to delivering a faulty product, which can potentially cause harm. This is because delivering a faulty product has a high magnitude of consequences.

The customer is the king in the market, the company can not afford to lose reputation by a delivery faulty product. Especially in the era of social media, these mistakes can cause loss of market share and can potentially damage the credibility of the company´s product, which could take lot of time to rebuild. It may also affect other product of the company to lose reputation.

3 0
2 years ago
On January 1, 2021, Perez Co. issued at par $10,000 of 6% bonds convertible in total into 1,000 shares of Perez's common stock.
marusya05 [52]

Answer:

EPS = $4.50

diluted EPS = $2.46

Explanation:

no option is correct since EPS = $4.50, and the rest of the options are all higher amounts. Diluted EPS are always smaller than EPS.  

common stock outstanding = 1,000 stocks

bonds shares (diluted) = 1,000 stocks

net income = $4,500

bond interest = $10,000 x 6% x (1 - 30%) = $420

diluted earnings per share = ($4,500 + $420) / (1,000 shares + 1,000 shares) = $4,920 / 2,000 shares = $2.46

7 0
3 years ago
A furniture factory's employees work overtime to finish an order that is sold on January 31. The office sends a statement to the
Lana71 [14]

Answer:

January

Explanation:

The overtime wages should be expensed in January as in the month of february, wages will be accrued and it will be liablity for employer.

The overtime worked in month on january should be paid in january itself and overtime expense should be included in wages payable in the month of January. When wages are paid, the owner of the factory should debit the wages payable account and cash account should be credited as amount of casg paid to the employees. Wages are considered as operating expenses of factory.

4 0
3 years ago
A truck rental company rents a moving truck for one day by charging $ 34 plus $ 0.05 per mile. Write a linear equation that rela
lara [203]

Answer:

C = 0.05*x + 34

Explanation:

There are several ways to approach this problem. However, we will follow a logical and simple procedure.

It is always possible to write any linear equation as:

y = mx + b, where:

m = slope

b = y-intercept (value when x = 0)

The problem statement guarantees us that b=34, because if we do not drive any mile (x=0), then the cost should be equal to $ 34. Also, we know that m=0.05, because every driven mile (increase in x by 1) the cost should increase by $5. Therefore, we can write the linear equation as:

y = 0.05x + 34

Changing the dependent variable y for C (to relate it with the cost) we have that:

C = 0.05x + 34

6 0
3 years ago
Use the DuPont system and the following data to find return on equity.(Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answer
hjlf

Answer:Return on Equity= 37.1%

Explanation:

According to the DuPont Analysis System,  

Return on Equity = Leverage Ratio x Net profit margin x Total asset turnover

Return on Equity = 2.8 x 5.3% x 2.5

Return on Equity=0.371

Return on Equity= 37.1%

6 0
3 years ago
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