Answer:



Step-by-step explanation:
Given
--- 8 friends
--- proportion that one-time fling
This question is an illustration of binomial probability, and it is represented as:

Solving (a): P(x = 0) --- None has done one time fling




Solving (b): 
To do this, we make use of compliment rule:

Rewrite as:



Solving (c):
--- Not more than 2 has one time fling
This is calculated as:

We have:







So:



60 minutes times 40 hours equals 2400 minutes
Step-by-step explanation:
points (-7,5) and (5,-3)?
This would mean to subtract the y coordinates:
5 - (-3) = 8
Then subtract the x coordinates in the same order:
-7 - 5 = -12
Then divide the y result by the x result for the slope:
8/-12 is the slope.
In simplest form, this is equivalent to -2/3
David's total income is ($8/hr)x + ($11/hr)y.
This problem requires us to write and solve an inequality:
8x + 11(15)<$200
Solving for x: 8x < $200-$165, or 8x < $35. Strictly speaking, x = 4.375 hrs, but if we assume that David must work an integer # of hours, then x=5 full hours.
Answer:its yhe one on the right
Step-by-step explanation: