Does inflation benefit the lender or borrower?

In most cases, what is the most expensive promotion tool?

REY [17]

Answer: (B) Personal selling

Explanation:

The person selling is basically refers to the two-way communication process in which we sell our products and the services face to face to the customer.

The personal selling is also known as the interaction form of selling the products to the user.

The personal selling is one of the most expensive promotion tool as it is hardly used for advertising the products. It mainly involve spreading the information regarding the specific organization products and the services.

Therefore, Option (B) is correct.

6 0

3 years ago

Citibank need to borrow $1 million for 6 months starting in 2 years. Citibank is concerned about the interest rate would like to

Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

"$ 15,000" is the correct solution.

Explanation:

The given values are:

Agreed fixed rate,

= 0.04

LIBOR rate,

= 0.01

No. of borrowing months,

= 6

National amount,

= 1000000

Now,

The net payment will be:

= $National \ principal*(Floating \ rate - Fixed \ rate)\times \frac{No. \ of \ months}{12}$

On substituting the above values, we get

= $1000000\times (0.01-0.4)\times \frac{6}{12}$

= $1000000\times (-0.03)\times 0.5$

= $-15,000$ ($)

3 0

3 years ago

Assume that you are the portfolio manager of the SF Fund, a $3 million hedge fund that contains the following stocks. The requir

borishaifa [10]

Answer:

11.11%

Explanation:

The full question with table is attached.

We need the rate of return formula using Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). The formula is:

$R=R_f+\beta(R_m-R_f)$

Where

R is rate of return (what we need)

$R_f$ is risk-free return rate (5% = 0.05)

$R_m$ is the market rate of return (11% = 0.11)

To get $\beta$ , we take the weighted average of the portfolio.

Weight of Stock A = 1,075,000/3,000,000 = 0.3583

Weight of Stock B = 675,000/3,000,000 = 0.225

Weight of Stock C = 750,000/3,000,000 = 0.25

Weight of Stock D = 500,000/3,000,000 = 0.1667

Portfolio Beta = (0.3583*1.2) + (0.225*0.50) + (0.25*1.40) + (0.1667*0.75) = 1.02

Now, we calculate rate of return using CAPM formula:

$R=R_f+\beta(R_m-R_f)\\R=0.05+1.02(0.11-0.05)\\R=0.1112$

That is 11.12%, or from answer choice, it is 11.11%

7 0

3 years ago

Pat's Custom Tuxedo Shop maintains its records on the cash basis. During this past year Pat's collected $43,300 in tailoring fee

Luba_88 [7]

Answer:

net income = $31,500

Explanation:

given data

collect tailoring fees = $43,300

paid expenses = $12,300

Depreciation expense= $2,500

Accounts receivable = $1,050

supplies increased = $4,300

liabilities increased = $2,350

to find out

accrual basis net income

solution

we get here net income by given expression that is

net income = tailoring fees - expenses paid + account receivable + supplies increased - liabilities increased - Depreciation expense .......1

put here value

net income = $43,300 - $12,300 + $1,050 + $4,300 - $2,350 - $2,500

net income = $31,500

8 0

3 years ago

In the short run, with predetermined prices, when output is greater than planned aggregate expenditures:

katen-ka-za [31]

Answer:

The decrease in production, is the right answer.

Explanation:

The decrease in production because if the output is more than planned aggregate expenditure then the equilibrium point will be at a lower point. Thus, in order to reach the equilibrium level, the production has to decrease. Moreover, if the output is lower than the planned aggregate expenditure then the production should be increased to reach the equilibrium point.

5 0

3 years ago