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r-ruslan [8.4K]
3 years ago
12

"With his "principle of liberty," John Stuart Mill rejects the notion of "victimless crime," where the state has no right to cri

minalize behavior it deems harmful to the agent but to no one else." The previous statement is:
Social Studies
1 answer:
lbvjy [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

True.

Explanation:

The given statement would be considered true as it asserts a true claim about J.S. Mill's 'principle of liberty' denying the conception of 'victimless crime'. He stated that individual actions should only be restricted when it is causing damage to others. He proclaimed that  "the only purpose for which power can be rightfully exercised over any member of a civilized community, against his will, is to prevent harm to others". In simple terms, he stated that no one should be prevented from doing a specific action unless his/her actions are not invasive or harmful to the other's rights. Therefore, the given assertion is <u>true.</u>

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