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amm1812
3 years ago
7

Mrs. Kemsley’s family always travels to a relative's

Mathematics
1 answer:
Makovka662 [10]3 years ago
8 0

492.75 hours plus a year

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The softball team stopped for ice cream after a big game. five 2-scoop cones cost the same as three sundaes. If they bought nine
Savatey [412]
<span>Let the cost of 2-scoop cones be x, and the cost of sundaes be y.
The first statement tells us that 5x = 3y
The second statement tells us that 9x + 6y = 19.95
Then we need to calculate the value of y (the cost of a sundae).
From our first equation, y = 5x/3. Substituting this into the second equation:
9x + 6(5x/3) = 19.95
9x + 10x = 19.95
19x = 19.95
x = 1.05
Substituting back into the first equation: 5(1.05) = 3y
5.25 = 3y
y = 1.75
Therefore the cost of a sundae is $1.75.
</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Javier filled his gas tank with 8 gallons of unleaded gas for a cost of $15.12. How much will it cost to fill a 14-gallon tank?
tatuchka [14]
$26.46
I divided 15.12 by 8 to get the cost of just one gallon , which was $1.89. 14 x 1.89 = 26.46, which would ideally be the cost to fill a 14-gallon tank.
7 0
2 years ago
How many eights make a half
evablogger [386]

Answer:

Four, because 4/8 = 1/2 There are obviously 8 1/8ths in a whole so half of that amount is obviously 4 1/8ths.

Step-by-step explanation:

Gave above.

7 0
3 years ago
What’s the probability of getting 6 or more girls from 8 births?
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

3/4 or 6/8

Step-by-step explanation:

6/8 when simplified is 3/4. That is the probability over the total.

8 0
3 years ago
Let X ~ N(0, 1) and Y = eX. Y is called a log-normal random variable.
Cloud [144]

If F_Y(y) is the cumulative distribution function for Y, then

F_Y(y)=P(Y\le y)=P(e^X\le y)=P(X\le\ln y)=F_X(\ln y)

Then the probability density function for Y is f_Y(y)={F_Y}'(y):

f_Y(y)=\dfrac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dy}F_X(\ln y)=\dfrac1yf_X(\ln y)=\begin{cases}\frac1{y\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac12(\ln y)^2}&\text{for }y>0\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}

The nth moment of Y is

E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty y^nf_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_0^\infty y^{n-1}e^{-\frac12(\ln y)^2}\,\mathrm dy

Let u=\ln y, so that \mathrm du=\frac{\mathrm dy}y and y^n=e^{nu}:

E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{nu}e^{-\frac12u^2}\,\mathrm du=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{nu-\frac12u^2}\,\mathrm du

Complete the square in the exponent:

nu-\dfrac12u^2=-\dfrac12(u^2-2nu+n^2-n^2)=\dfrac12n^2-\dfrac12(u-n)^2

E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{\frac12(n^2-(u-n)^2)}\,\mathrm du=\frac{e^{\frac12n^2}}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2}\,\mathrm du

But \frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2} is exactly the PDF of a normal distribution with mean n and variance 1; in other words, the 0th moment of a random variable U\sim N(n,1):

E[U^0]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2}\,\mathrm du=1

so we end up with

E[Y^n]=e^{\frac12n^2}

3 0
2 years ago
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